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CPT Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

An example of transverse plane motion is a

Options:

A.

Squat

B.

Lunge

C.

Pull down

D.

Bench press

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Questions 5

Which type of muscle can be voluntarily contracted?

Options:

A.

Cardiac

B.

Non-striated

C.

Smooth

D.

Skeletal

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Questions 6

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate recommendation for a resistance training program for fat loss and endurance?

Options:

A.

2 day split routine

B.

3 day split total body circuit routine

C.

3 day split routine

D.

4 day split full cardio routine

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Questions 7

Which of the following heart chambers pumps reoxygenated blood to the entire body?

Options:

A.

Right atrium

B.

Right ventricle

C.

Left ventricle

D.

Left atrium

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Questions 8

The Karvonen formula is the recommended method for calculating

Options:

A.

VO2 max

B.

Percent body fat

C.

Exercise heart rate

D.

Resting heart rate

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Questions 9

Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, quickness drill for a senior client?

Options:

A.

Hurdle stepovers

B.

Red light, green light

C.

Box drill

D.

Mirror drill

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Questions 10

Which of the following is an example of intrinsic motivation for exercise?

Options:

A.

Achieving a weight loss goal

B.

Improving mood

C.

Improving posture

D.

Increasing overall health

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Questions 11

A trainer is designing an exercise program for a client who has hypertension. Which of the following core-stabilization exercises should the trainer include?

Options:

A.

Two-leg floor bridge

B.

Prone isometric abdominals

C.

Standing cobra

D.

Marching

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Questions 12

Exercises which create sport-specific skill adaptations need to

Options:

A.

be low intensity

B.

be performed on the weight machines

C.

duplicate the desired movement

D.

incorporate isometric contractions

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Questions 13

Which of the following refers to the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when secondary muscles take over function for a weak or inhibited prime mover?

Options:

A.

Arthrokinetic dysfunction

B.

Synergistic dominance

C.

Reciprocal inhibition

D.

Autogenic inhibition

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Questions 14

The NFPT-recommended recovery heart rate for a client with a size/strength goal is

Options:

A.

100 beats per minute (BPM)

B.

115 BPM

C.

125 BPM

D.

140 BPM

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Questions 15

A trainer is preparing to have a client perform an active kneeling hip flexor stretch. Which of the following instructions should the trainer give the client?

Options:

A.

"Perform 2 sets of 12 to 15 repetitions."

B.

"Perform as quickly as can be controlled for 10 repetitions."

C.

"Hold the stretch for 30 seconds and perform 1 to 3 repetitions."

D.

"Hold the stretch for 2 seconds and perform 5 to 10 repetitions."

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Questions 16

A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?

Options:

A.

Single-leg squat on an Airex pad

B.

Two-leg squat on floor

C.

Two-leg squat on Dyna disc

D.

Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc

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Questions 17

Reducing the intake of saturated fat will

Options:

A.

Raise LDL cholesterol levels in the blood

B.

Raise HDL cholesterol levels in the blood

C.

Lower LDL cholesterol levels in the blood

D.

Lower HDL cholesterol levels in the blood

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Questions 18

Which of the following dynamic flexibility distortion patterns will create abnormal stress throughout the kinetic chain?

Options:

A.

Eversion of the foot

B.

Neutrality of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

C.

Patella tracking parallel with the foot

D.

Neutrality of the scapulae

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Questions 19

Which bone is located in the arm?

Options:

A.

Sacrum

B.

Sternum

C.

Radius

D.

Hyoid

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Questions 20

A personal trainer uses a heart rate monitor during a client's training session to provide which of the following types of feedback?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Sensory

D.

Mechanical

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Questions 21

Which of the following is a compensation observed in the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex during the overhead squat assessment?

Options:

A.

Knees move inward

B.

Low-back arches

C.

Arms fall forward

D.

Feet turn out

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Questions 22

One purpose of high-repetition range (20-25) training during a continuous tension set is the rapid depletion of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Amino acids

B.

Muscle glycogen

C.

Fatty acids

D.

Chylomicrons

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Questions 23

A trainer is facilitating a client's goal-setting process. Which of the following goals set by the client should the trainer clarify?

Options:

A.

"I want to lose 8 pounds in 1 month."

B.

"I want to be able to run a 5K in 1 month."

C.

"I want to make it to the gym three times a week for 1 month."

D.

"I want to be in better shape in 1 month."

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Questions 24

If a client's lower back arches during an overhead squat test, which of the following muscles is likely underactive?

Options:

A.

Latissimus dorsi

B.

Erector spinae

C.

Transverse abdominis

D.

Psoas major

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Questions 25

A client who uses the erector spinae to perform a hip extension is exhibiting which of the following?

Options:

A.

Reciprocal inhibition

B.

Synergistic dominance

C.

Autogenic inhibition

D.

Neuromuscular efficiency

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Questions 26

A trainer is discussing proper running form with a client. Which of the following is an appropriate auditory cue?

Options:

A.

"Lean forward slightly during deceleration."

B.

"Keep the knees straight ahead."

C.

"Head should move into extension."

D.

"Ankles should be plantar flexed."

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Questions 27

A weight gain client stops gaining weight. What is the MOST appropriate modification to the client's program?

Options:

A.

Increase repetitions

B.

Decrease repetitions

C.

Increase calories

D.

Decrease calories

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Questions 28

Protein that is broken down in the stomach and then further broken down in the small intestine forms

Options:

A.

simple sugars

B.

complex carbs

C.

amino acids

D.

fatty acids

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Questions 29

A trainer is working with a client who has upper crossed syndrome. Which of the following muscles should the trainer recommend that the client stretch?

Options:

A.

Levator scapulae

B.

Serratus anterior

C.

Lower trapezius

D.

Teres minor

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Questions 30

During a single-leg squat assessment, a client's knee moves inward. Which of the following muscles should the client strengthen?

Options:

A.

Adductor complex

B.

VMO

C.

TFL

D.

Biceps femoris

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Questions 31

Which of the following are benefits of a proper cool down?

Options:

A.

Complete muscle recovery and repair

B.

Increases heart rate and reduces stretch reflex

C.

Gradual recovery and reduces muscle soreness

D.

Decreases blood flow and enhances contraction

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Questions 32

Self-myofascial release will decrease the excitation of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Golgi tendon organs

B.

Muscle spindles

C.

Sarcomeres

D.

Myosin heads

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Questions 33

A trainer is working with a client who is performing the floor cobra exercise. Which of the following instructions should the trainer provide?

Options:

A.

"Relax your glutes."

B.

"Retract and depress your shoulder blades."

C.

"Point your thumbs down."

D.

"Look up and lift your chest off the floor."

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Questions 34

Which muscle tissue type allows for vasoconstriction and vasodilation?

Options:

A.

Cardiac

B.

Skeletal

C.

Smooth

D.

Striated

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Questions 35

What is the first type of endurance a general fitness client must develop to be physically fit?

Options:

A.

Cardiorespiratory Conditioning

B.

Muscular Endurance

C.

Muscular Strength

D.

Flexibility

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Questions 36

Which of the following is an effect of dehydration?

Options:

A.

Increased blood volume

B.

Increased sweat rate

C.

Increased blood pressure

D.

Increased heart rate

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Questions 37

Which of the following verbal directions should a trainer provide a client to engage local core stabilizers?

Options:

A.

"Bear down."

B.

"Draw-in."

C.

"Retract."

D.

"Brace."

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Questions 38

Which of the following contractions decelerates the muscle while allowing the muscle to return to the starting point of the exercise?

Options:

A.

Isotonic

B.

Isometric

C.

Concentric

D.

Eccentric

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Questions 39

Which of the following is an appropriate progression for a client who can successfully perform a plank?

Options:

A.

Medicine ball pullover throw

B.

Marching

C.

Cable rotation

D.

Medicine ball rotation chest pass

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Questions 40

The typical adult skeleton is composed of how many bones?

Options:

A.

103

B.

157

C.

206

D.

318

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Questions 41

Which of the following statements best describes a characteristic of zone two of stage training?

Options:

A.

"This zone requires individuals to train near their anaerobic threshold."

B.

"The heart rate consists of 86 to 90 percent of the predicted maximum heart rate."

C.

"This zone is a true high-intensity workout and cannot be sustained for long periods of time."

D.

"This zone is a recovery zone."

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Questions 42

In accordance with the NFPT, how long before an intense exercise session should a client eat?

Options:

A.

30 minutes

B.

60 minutes

C.

90-120 minutes

D.

150-180 minutes

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Questions 43

A trainer is discussing nutrition with a client. Which of the following information about fat should the trainer include?

Options:

A.

"Fats regulate the uptake and excretion of nutrients in the cells."

B.

"Olive oil and almonds are sources of saturated fats."

C.

"Fat should represent less than 10 percent of your daily caloric intake."

D.

"Fats are absorbed quickly for energy use in high-intensity exercise."

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Questions 44

Which of the following describes the anatomical position of the sternum in relation to the pelvis?

Options:

A.

Medial

B.

Inferior

C.

Lateral

D.

Superior

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Questions 45

A trainer is instructing a client about performing an OHSA. Which of the following should the trainer include?

Options:

A.

"Start by crossing your arms over your chest."

B.

"Start by raising your arms over your head with your elbows fully extended."

C.

"Start by placing your hands on your hips with your elbows bent."

D.

"Start by extending your arms forward and parallel with the floor."

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Questions 46

What is an appropriate assessment for testing muscular endurance?

Options:

A.

1RM bench press test

B.

Zigzag test

C.

3-minute step test

D.

Pushup test

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Questions 47

Which of the following is the primary hormone secreted during times of stress?

Options:

A.

Estrogen

B.

Progesterone

C.

Cortisol

D.

Testosterone

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Questions 48

Which of the following is a benefit of aerobic exercise?

Options:

A.

Decreases LDL cholesterol

B.

Decreases HDL cholesterol

C.

Increases blood pressure

D.

Increases resting pulse rate

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Questions 49

How do poor sleeping habits reduce exercise recovery effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Growth hormone release is increased

B.

Toxic protein build-up in cerebrospinal fluid can't be broken down

C.

Production of insulin is increased

D.

Cortisol cannot be produced during waking hours

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Questions 50

In which of the following situations should a trainer refer a client to a medical practitioner?

Options:

A.

When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.

B.

When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed diabetes.

C.

When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension.

D.

When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy.

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Questions 51

Which type of stretch is BEST to incorporate in a warm-up prior to a workout that can increase muscular power?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Static

C.

Passive

D.

Facilitated

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Questions 52

A client is able to correctly perform a single leg dumbbell overhead press. Which of the following is the appropriate stabilization progression for performing this exercise?

Options:

A.

Standing with an increased dumbbell weight

B.

Standing in a staggered stance on a stable surface

C.

Standing with two feet on a BOSU ball

D.

Standing on one foot on a BOSU ball

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Questions 53

A trainer notices that a client has knee valgus. Which of the following terms describes the joint movement of the knees?

Options:

A.

Abducted

B.

Adducted

C.

Supinated

D.

Externally rotated

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Questions 54

A trainer observes a client's hips drop toward the floor during pushups. Which muscles should be strengthened to prevent this compensation?

Options:

A.

Abdominals

B.

Triceps

C.

Trapezius

D.

Quadriceps

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Questions 55

A trainer agrees to develop a meal plan for a client who is obese. Which of the following is the result of the trainer's actions?

Options:

A.

Violation of the NASM code of professional conduct

B.

Fulfillment of a trainer's duty to the client to assist in weight management

C.

Violation of HIPAA laws

D.

Adherence to the OPT model

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Questions 56

Which of the following is the MOST effective approach to athlete programming?

Options:

A.

Perform activities focused on the client's primary sport, with no cross training

B.

Primarily focus on activities for the client's primary sport, with supplemental cross training

C.

Perform activities focused on cross training, with no specific training primary sport

D.

Primarily focus on cross training activities, with supplemental primary sport training

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Questions 57

As the contraction against a resistance increases, more and more motor units come into play. This is described as

Options:

A.

Myofibril failure

B.

Mitochondrial failure

C.

Motor unit interruption

D.

Motor unit recruitment

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Questions 58

Which term describes the client's target heart rate prior to performing the next set?

Options:

A.

Resting

B.

Recovery

C.

Maximal

D.

Post-set

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Questions 59

Which of the following is the greatest contributor to an increased cardiovascular risk profile?

Options:

A.

Being underweight

B.

High caffeine intake

C.

Being sedentary

D.

Skipping meals

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Questions 60

A realistic goal for a client needing to lose 50 pounds is

Options:

A.

2 pounds a week

B.

20 pounds in one month

C.

1 pound per day

D.

50 pounds in 10 weeks

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Questions 61

A trainer is working with a new client who wants to lose 20 lb in 30 days. Which of the following actions should the trainer take first?

Options:

A.

Create a metabolic workout program.

B.

Create a negative calorie balance.

C.

Create realistic expectations.

D.

Create small goal milestones.

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Questions 62

Body weight alone does not distinguish between which of the following body composition factors?

Options:

A.

Lean mass and bone mass

B.

Lean mass and water mass

C.

Fat mass and lean mass

D.

Fat mass and water mass

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Questions 63

Which of the following subjective information should a trainer collect during a fitness assessment for an older adult client?

Options:

A.

Chronic medical conditions

B.

Body fat percentage

C.

Body mass index

D.

Postural alignment

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Questions 64

A client is doing single-leg scaptions and is raising the dumbbells at an improper angle. How should the trainer cue the client?

Options:

A.

Lift the dumbbells at a 45 degree angle.

B.

Lift the dumbbells in front of the shoulders.

C.

Lift the dumbbells at a 25 degree angle.

D.

Lift the dumbbells straight out to the sides.

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Questions 65

Which of the following is the most readily available form of fuel used by the tissues of the brain, nervous system, and muscles?

Options:

A.

Fiber

B.

Glucose

C.

Fat

D.

Protein

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Questions 66

It is BEST to incorporate static stretching

Options:

A.

before workout

B.

after workout

C.

before bedtime

D.

after waking up

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Questions 67

A trainer notices that a client's shoulders elevate and his head migrates forward during a pushing assessment. Which of the following muscles may be overactive?

Options:

A.

Middle and lower trapezius

B.

Intrinsic core stabilizers and latissimus dorsi

C.

Upper trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

D.

Deep cervical flexors and erector spinae

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Questions 68

Which of the following medications is prescribed for arrhythmias?

Options:

A.

Nitrates

B.

Diuretics

C.

Beta-blockers

D.

Bronchodilators

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Exam Code: CPT
Exam Name: NASM Certified Personal Trainer Exam
Last Update: Aug 29, 2025
Questions: 227
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