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SPLK-5001 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

As an analyst, tracking unique users is a common occurrence. The Security Operations Center (SOC) manager requested a search with results in a table format to track the cumulative downloads by distinct IP address. Which example calculates the running total of distinct users over time?

Options:

A.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by _time | streamstats dc(ipa) as "Cumulative total"

B.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by _time

C.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | table clientip _time user

D.

eventtype="download" | bin_time span=1d | stats values(clientip) as ipa dc(clientip) by user | table _time ipa

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Questions 5

Which Enterprise Security framework provides a mechanism for running preconfigured actions within the Splunk platform or integrating with external applications?

Options:

A.

Asset and Identity

B.

Notable Event

C.

Threat Intelligence

D.

Adaptive Response

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Questions 6

What feature of Splunk Security Essentials (SSE) allows an analyst to see a listing of current on-boarded data sources in Splunk so they can view content based on available data?

Options:

A.

Security Data Journey

B.

Security Content

C.

Data Inventory

D.

Data Source Onboarding Guides

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Questions 7

Which of the following is considered Personal Data under GDPR?

Options:

A.

The birth date of an unidentified user.

B.

An individual's address including their first and last name.

C.

The name of a deceased individual.

D.

A company's registration number.

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Questions 8

The United States Department of Defense (DoD) requires all government contractors to provide adequate security safeguards referenced in National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) 800-171. All DoD contractors must continually reassess, monitor, and track compliance to be able to do business with the US government.

Which feature of Splunk Enterprise Security provides an analyst context for the correlation search mapping to the specific NIST guidelines?

Options:

A.

Comments

B.

Moles

C.

Annotations

D.

Framework mapping

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Questions 9

What is the first phase of the Continuous Monitoring cycle?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Protect

B.

Define and Predict

C.

Assess and Evaluate

D.

Respond and Recover

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Questions 10

Enterprise Security has been configured to generate a Notable Event when a user has quickly authenticated from multiple locations between which travel would be impossible. This would be considered what kind of an anomaly?

Options:

A.

Access Anomaly

B.

Identity Anomaly

C.

Endpoint Anomaly

D.

Threat Anomaly

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Questions 11

An IDS signature is designed to detect and alert on logins to a certain server, but only if they occur from 6:00 PM - 6:00 AM. If no IDS alerts occur in this window, but the signature is known to be correct, this would be an example of what?

Options:

A.

A True Negative.

B.

A True Positive.

C.

A False Negative.

D.

A False Positive.

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Questions 12

Which Splunk Enterprise Security dashboard displays authentication and access-related data?

Options:

A.

Audit dashboards

B.

Asset and Identity dashboards

C.

Access dashboards

D.

Endpoint dashboards

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Questions 13

In which phase of the Continuous Monitoring cycle are suggestions and improvements typically made?

Options:

A.

Define and Predict

B.

Establish and Architect

C.

Analyze and Report

D.

Implement and Collect

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Questions 14

While the top command is utilized to find the most common values contained within a field, a Cyber Defense Analyst hunts for anomalies. Which of the following Splunk commands returns the least common values?

Options:

A.

least

B.

uncommon

C.

rare

D.

base

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Questions 15

An analyst is building a search to examine Windows XML Event Logs, but the initial search is not returning any extracted fields. Based on the above image, what is themost likelycause?

Options:

A.

The analyst does not have the proper role to search this data.

B.

The analyst is searching newly indexed data that was improperly parsed.

C.

The analyst did not add the excract command to their search pipeline.

D.

The analyst is not in the Drooer Search Mode and should switch to Smart or Verbose.

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Questions 16

Why is tstats more efficient than stats for large datasets?

Options:

A.

tstats is faster since it operates at the beginning of the search pipeline.

B.

tstats is faster since it only looks at indexed metadata, not raw data.

C.

tstats is faster due to its SQL-like syntax.

D.

tstats is faster since it searches raw logs for extracted fields.

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Questions 17

According to Splunk CIM documentation, which field in the Authentication Data Model represents the user who initiated a privilege escalation?

Options:

A.

dest_user

B.

src_user_id

C.

src_user

D.

username

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Questions 18

During their shift, an analyst receives an alert about an executable being run from C:\Windows\Temp. Why should this be investigated further?

Options:

A.

Temp directories aren't owned by any particular user, making it difficult to track the process owner when files are executed.

B.

Temp directories are flagged as non-executable, meaning that no files stored within can be executed, and this executable was run from that directory.

C.

Temp directories contain the system page file and the virtual memory file, meaning the attacker can use their malware to read the in memory values of running programs.

D.

Temp directories are world writable thus allowing attackers a place to drop, stage, and execute malware on a system without needing to worry about file permissions.

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Questions 19

Which of the following compliance frameworks was specifically created to measure the level of cybersecurity maturity within an organization?

Options:

A.

PCI-DSS

B.

GDPR

C.

CHMC

D.

FISMA

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Questions 20

Which Splunk Enterprise Security framework provides a way to identify incidents from events and then manage the ownership, triage process, and state of those incidents?

Options:

A.

Asset and Identity

B.

Investigation Management

C.

Notable Event

D.

Adaptive Response

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Questions 21

The following list contains examples of Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs):

1. Exploiting a remote service

2. Lateral movement

3. Use EternalBlue to exploit a remote SMB server

In which order are they listed below?

Options:

A.

Tactic, Technique, Procedure

B.

Procedure, Technique, Tactic

C.

Technique, Tactic, Procedure

D.

Tactic, Procedure, Technique

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Questions 22

An analyst is attempting to investigate a Notable Event within Enterprise Security. Through the course of their investigation they determined that the logs and artifacts needed to investigate the alert are not available.

What event disposition should the analyst assign to the Notable Event?

Options:

A.

Benign Positive, since there was no evidence that the event actually occurred.

B.

False Negative, since there are no logs to prove the activity actually occurred.

C.

True Positive, since there are no logs to prove that the event did not occur.

D.

Other, since a security engineer needs to ingest the required logs.

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Questions 23

An analysis of an organization’s security posture determined that a particular asset is at risk and a new process or solution should be implemented to protect it. Typically, who would be in charge of designing the new process and selecting the required tools to implement it?

Options:

A.

SOC Manager

B.

Security Engineer

C.

Security Architect

D.

Security Analyst

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Questions 24

An adversary uses "LoudWiner" to hijack resources for crypto mining. What does this represent in a TTP framework?

Options:

A.

Procedure

B.

Tactic

C.

Problem

D.

Technique

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Questions 25

What is the main difference between hypothesis-driven and data-driven Threat Hunting?

Options:

A.

Data-driven hunts always require more data to search through than hypothesis-driven hunts.

B.

Data-driven hunting tries to uncover activity within an existing data set, hypothesis-driven hunting begins with a potential activity that the hunter thinks may be happening.

C.

Hypothesis-driven hunts are typically executed on newly ingested data sources, while data-driven hunts are not.

D.

Hypothesis-driven hunting tries to uncover activity within an existing data set, data-driven hunting begins with an activity that the hunter thinks may be happening.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is not a component of the Splunk Security Content library (ESCU, SSE)?

Options:

A.

Dashboards

B.

Reports

C.

Correlation searches

D.

Validated architectures

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Questions 27

Which of the following is a reason to use Data Model Acceleration in Splunk?

Options:

A.

To rapidly compare the use of various algorithms to detect anomalies.

B.

To quickly model various responses to a particular vulnerability.

C.

To normalize the data associated with threats.

D.

To retrieve data faster than from a raw index.

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Questions 28

A Risk Rule generates events on Suspicious Cloud Share Activity and regularly contributes to confirmed incidents from Risk Notables. An analyst realizes the raw logs these events are generated from contain information which helps them determine what might be malicious.

What should they ask their engineer for to make their analysis easier?

Options:

A.

Create a field extraction for this information.

B.

Add this information to the risk message.

C.

Create another detection for this information.

D.

Allowlist more events based on this information.

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Questions 29

The Lockheed Martin Cyber Kill Chain® breaks an attack lifecycle into several stages. A threat actor modified the registry on a compromised Windows system to ensure that their malware would automatically run at boot time. Into which phase of the Kill Chain would this fall?

Options:

A.

Act on Objectives

B.

Exploitation

C.

Delivery

D.

Installation

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Exam Code: SPLK-5001
Exam Name: Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst
Last Update: Aug 20, 2025
Questions: 99
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