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Practitioner Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?

Options:

A.

Unit 52

B.

PAN-DB

C.

BrightCloud

D.

MineMeld

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Questions 5

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

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Questions 6

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

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Questions 7

Which type of attack includes exfiltration of data as a primary objective?

Options:

A.

Advanced persistent threat

B.

Denial-of-service (DoS)

C.

Watering hole attack

D.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

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Questions 8

Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.

Options:

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Questions 9

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

Options:

A.

Shortest Path

B.

Hop Count

C.

Split Horizon

D.

Path Vector

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Questions 10

Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

Options:

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Questions 11

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

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Questions 12

Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?

Options:

A.

Prisma SAAS

B.

WildFire

C.

Cortex XDR

D.

Cortex XSOAR

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Questions 13

Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.

Options:

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Questions 14

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

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Questions 15

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

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Questions 16

What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?

Options:

A.

They enable companies to use cloud-native tools and methodologies.

B.

They are used for data storage in cloud environments.

C.

They serve as a template manager for software applications and services.

D.

They are used to orchestrate virtual machines (VMs) in cloud environments.

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Questions 17

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

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Questions 18

What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Lateral movement

B.

Communication with covert channels

C.

Deletion of critical data

D.

Privilege escalation

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Questions 19

Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

Options:

A.

CSPM

B.

ASM

C.

EDR

D.

CVVP

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Questions 20

What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is unable to detect polymorphic malware.

B.

It requires samples lo be buffered

C.

It uses a static file for comparing potential threats.

D.

It only uses packet header information.

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Questions 21

Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

Options:

A.

Global Protect

B.

WildFire

C.

AutoFocus

D.

STIX

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Questions 22

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

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Questions 23

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

Options:

A.

Evil twin

B.

Jasager

C.

Parager

D.

Mirai

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Questions 24

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

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Questions 25

The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.

What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Agreement

B.

FAO Incident Site —

C.

Corporate Executive Listserv

D.

Security Breach Blog

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Questions 26

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

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Questions 27

Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?

Options:

A.

Data decompression

B.

Registered certificates

C.

Morphing code

D.

Low traffic volumes

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Questions 28

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

Options:

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

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Questions 29

What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

Options:

A.

Decreased connection quality within a local area network

B.

Increased sharing of data through the internet

C.

Higher attack surface due to mobility

D.

Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security

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Questions 30

Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

Security as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Authentication as a Service

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Questions 31

Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

Options:

A.

Knowledge-based

B.

Signature-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Database-based

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Questions 32

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

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Questions 33

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

Options:

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

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Questions 34

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?

Options:

A.

Virtual

B.

Container

C.

Physical

D.

SASE

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Questions 35

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Options:

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Questions 36

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

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Questions 37

Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

Options:

A.

Allowance

B.

Authorization

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

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Questions 38

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

Options:

A.

STIX

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

WildFire

D.

AutoFocus

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Questions 39

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

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Questions 40

What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Serverless function

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Docker container

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Questions 41

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

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Questions 42

What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?

Options:

A.

run a static analysis

B.

check its execution policy

C.

send the executable to WildFire

D.

run a dynamic analysis

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Questions 43

What does SIEM stand for?

Options:

A.

Security Infosec and Event Management

B.

Security Information and Event Management

C.

Standard Installation and Event Media

D.

Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring

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Questions 44

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

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Questions 45

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

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Questions 46

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

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Questions 47

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Options:

A.

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

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Questions 48

Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

Cyber threat protection

B.

Inspection of all traffic

C.

Least privileges access control

D.

Network segmentation

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Questions 49

You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Spamming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Phishing

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Questions 50

Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?

Options:

A.

use of non-standard ports

B.

port hopping

C.

hiding within SSL encryption

D.

tunneling within commonly used services

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Questions 51

Which two statements describe the Jasager attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

□ The victim must manually choose the attacker s access point

B.

□ It actively responds to beacon reguests.

C.

□ It tries to get victims to conned at random.

D.

□ The attacker needs to be wilhin close proximity of the victim.

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Questions 52

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

Options:

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

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Questions 53

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Options:

A.

Types of physical storage media used

B.

Data-at-rest encryption standards

C.

Acceptable use of the SaaS application

D.

Vulnerability scanning and management

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Questions 54

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

Options:

A.

simplifies security policy management

B.

reduces network latency

C.

causes security policies to be complex

D.

improves security policy application ID enforcement

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Questions 55

What is an operation of an Attack Surface Management (ASM) platform?

Options:

A.

It scans assets in the cloud space for remediation of compromised sanctioned SaaS applications.

B.

It continuously identifies all internal and external internet-connected assets for potential attack vectors and exposures.

C.

It identifies and monitors the movement of data within, into, and out of an organization's network.

D.

It detects and remediates misconfigured security settings in sanctioned SaaS applications through monitoring.

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Questions 56

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

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Questions 57

Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?

Options:

A.

Statistical-based

B.

Knowledge-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Anomaly-based

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Questions 58

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

Options:

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

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Questions 59

If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?

Options:

A.

The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.

B.

The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.

C.

The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.

D.

The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.

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Questions 60

Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

Options:

A.

Hub

B.

Layer 2 switch

C.

Router

D.

Wireless access point

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Questions 61

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

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Questions 62

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

Options:

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

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Questions 63

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

Options:

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

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Questions 64

Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware executables such as viruses, trojans, and rootkits?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

AutoFocus

D.

App-ID

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Questions 65

Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?

Options:

A.

Serverless

B.

Dockers

C.

Cloud-hosted

D.

Kubernetes

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Questions 66

You have been invited to a public cloud design and architecture session to help deliver secure east west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads.

What deployment options do you have available? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PA-Series

B.

VM-Series

C.

Panorama

D.

CN-Series

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Questions 67

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

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Questions 68

What is an advantage of virtual firewalls over physical firewalls for internal segmentation when placed in a data center?

Options:

A.

They are dynamically scalable.

B.

They possess unlimited throughput capability.

C.

They are able to prevent evasive threats.

D.

They have failover capability.

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Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Dec 12, 2025
Questions: 227
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