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4A0-100 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

How does a VPRN service avoid the problem of overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

Options:

A.

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. Customers must change their IP address assignment.

B.

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information. This allows for overlapping addresses.

C.

A VPRN ignores IP addressing information and uses MAC addressing instead, which are always unique.

D.

A VPRN translates customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

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Questions 5

Why does UDP have less overhead than TCP?

Options:

A.

UDP has less overhead because it is only used for transmission of small amounts of data.

B.

UDP has less overhead then TCP because there is no checksum field in UDP.

C.

UDP overhead is the same as TCP because it uses the same fields in the header.

D.

UDP has less overhead because there is no requirement for acknowledgment or retransmission.

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Questions 6

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with the sequence number 111 from R7 and then receives another copy of the LSA with a sequence number 112 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

Options:

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Questions 7

Which of the following is a characteristic of a static route?

Options:

A.

Responds in real time to network failures.

B.

Can only be used for routing within an autonomous system.

C.

Uses a hop-count metric to determine the best route to a network.

D.

Explicitly defines the next-hop based on operator input.

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Questions 8

What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

Options:

A.

The host will retransmit the frame if it detects a collision during transmission.

B.

The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected.

C.

The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting.

D.

The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry.

E.

The host will only transmit when it receives the token.

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Questions 9

Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet reaches the CE device?

Options:

A.

The CE device removes the MPLS label.

B.

The last LSR on the LSP removes the MPLS label.

C.

MPLS labels are not removed until they reach the final destination.

D.

The egress LER removes the MPLS label.

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Questions 10

Which of the following is IANA responsible for?

Options:

A.

The allocation of enterprise IP address space

B.

The allocation of residential IP address space

C.

The allocation of global IP address space

D.

The allocation of North American IP address space

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Questions 11

How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?

Options:

A.

LDP monitors the available bandwidth on all links and signals the LSP based on this information.

B.

LDP uses the shortest hop-count between two endpoints for the LSP.

C.

LDP must be configured hop-by-hop by the service provider.

D.

LDP follows the path chosen by the IGP.

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Questions 12

Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the Transport Layer in the TCP/IP stack?

Options:

A.

Provides a data transport service to higher protocol layers.

B.

Provides a data transport service for routing and control protocols such as OSPF and ICMP.

C.

Provides a universal address plan to uniquely identify every device in the network.

D.

Defines a standard method for framing data for transmission on the physical network medium.

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Questions 13

What operation is performed by an egress Label Edge Router (eLER) when it receives an MPLS labeled packet?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet to the next LSR without altering the MPLS label.

B.

It swaps the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LSR.

C.

It pushes a new MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LSR.

D.

It pops the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next IP router.

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Questions 14

Which of the following is the location where an ISP aggregates its customer connections and connects them to

the Internet?

Options:

A.

A demarcation point

B.

An Internet exchange point

C.

A regional Internet registry

D.

A point of presence

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Questions 15

Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor on a Nokia 7750 SR stores the runtime image and the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SF 1

B.

SF 2

C.

SF 3

D.

Both CF1 and CF2

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Questions 16

You are configuring your Nokia 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this quickly?

Options:

A.

Ctrl-z

B.

Ctrl-c

C.

Esc

D.

Shift-Page Down

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Questions 17

What next-hop should be used on CR1 to configure a default route to router R1?

Options:

A.

10.2.3.2

B.

10.2.3.1

C.

192.168.2.0

D.

10.1.1.1

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Questions 18

Which of the following statements about ARP request and ARP response messages is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Both ARP request and response messages are unicast messages.

B.

Both ARP request and response messages are broadcast messages.

C.

An ARP request is a broadcast message, while an ARP response is a unicast message.

D.

An ARP request is a unicast message, while an ARP response is a broadcast message.

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Questions 19

Which application below would be likely to use UDP?

Options:

A.

Real-time audio application such as VoIP.

B.

Web browser.

C.

Email application.

D.

Telnet.

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Questions 20

Host A receives a TCP SYN/ACK segment. What does this signify?

Options:

A.

Host A has received a request to establish a TCP session.

B.

Host A has received a request to close a TCP session

C.

A TCP session is now established to host A.

D.

The TCP session has been terminated due to a timeout.

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Questions 21

From the CE perspective, how does a VPLS operate?

Options:

A.

A VPLS operates as if 2 sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a single router.

D.

A VPLS operates as if multiple sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point routed connections.

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Questions 22

What does a VPLS solution look like from a customers perspective?

Options:

A.

To the customer, it appears as if all sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.

To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.

To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a single router.

D.

To the customer, it appears as if all sites are connected through a series of private point-to-point connections.

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Questions 23

Which of the following information can be seen within the FILE context of the SR 7x50? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

File sizes

B.

Port statistics

C.

Log-id 100 files

D.

TiMOS image files

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Questions 24

Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

Options:

A.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.

config router default-route 10.2.3.2

E.

config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 25

Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A router ID is not required by OSPF.

B.

The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set.

C.

The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router.

D.

On the Nokia 7750 SR, the router ID is set to the highest logical IP address if router-id is not explicitly set.

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Questions 26

If a customer requires a point-to-point layer 2 VPN service between two locations which VPN service would be typically suited for this customer?

Options:

A.

Virtual Private Wire Service .

B.

Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.

Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.

Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

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Questions 27

Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?

Options:

A.

IEEE

B.

IETF

C.

NSFNET

D.

ITU-T

E.

APNIC

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Questions 28

Public IP addresses are globally coordinated by which organization?

Options:

A.

Network Solutions INC

B.

IANA

C.

IETF

D.

ITU-T

E.

IEEE

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Questions 29

Which statement best describes a SAP?

Options:

A.

The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.

B.

The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the service.

C.

The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the service.

D.

The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to the service.

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Questions 30

Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?

Options:

A.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.

B.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.

C.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

D.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

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Questions 31

Which of the following describes a static default route?

Options:

A.

An entry included in the default configuration of the router that is used if no dynamic routing protocols or static routes are configured.

B.

A wildcard entry used when the destination network is not specifically defined in the routing table.

C.

An entry selected based on the route that has the least cost to the destination (path with the most physical bandwidth)

D.

An entry used by the routing protocol when it is unable to calculate the best route to the destination.

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Questions 32

Which bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

Options:

A.

A string of consecutive 1's.

B.

A string of consecutive 0's.

C.

A string of alternating 10's.

D.

The network address is determined by masking the source address with a port's if Index binary representation.

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Questions 33

Which of the following is NOT a field in a TCP header?

Options:

A.

Source port.

B.

MTU.

C.

Sequence number.

D.

Acknowledgement number.

E.

Window size.

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Questions 34

In the diagram, what type of BGP session is established between the routers of AS 65001 and AS 2002?

Options:

A.

IGP

B.

IBGP

C.

EBGP

D.

EGP

E.

BGP cannot be run between routers in different ASs.

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Questions 35

What is the function of the Routing Table Manager?

Options:

A.

Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, find the best path to the destination network and install it in the routing table.

B.

Provide a CLI interface to allow the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on the router.

C.

Based on the routing protocol preference values, chose the route with the lowest preference and install it in the routing table.

D.

Provide a CLI interface to allow the network operator to install static routes in the routing table.

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Questions 36

How does the Transport Layer identify which application is to receive the data?

Options:

A.

Using the IP address of the packet.

B.

Using the MAC address of the frame.

C.

Using port numbers.

D.

Using Connection Identifier Numbers (CIN).

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Questions 37

In the diagram, R3 receives an LSA with sequence number 112 from R7 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. Later it receives a copy of the same LSA with a sequence number of 111 from R1. What does R3 do with the LSA from R1?

Options:

A.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends a copy of the LSA from its link state base to R1.

B.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R3 discards the LSA received from R1 and sends an ACK to R1.

D.

R3 installs the LSA received from R1 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R1 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Questions 38

Which of the parameters in Hello messages exchanged between two OSPF neighbors must be the same to keep the adjacency alive in OSPF? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Interface MTU.

B.

Area ID.

C.

Authentication password.

D.

Hello interval.

E.

Dead interval.

F.

Router priority.

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Questions 39

Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network?

Options:

A.

At the edge of the provider's network facing the customer.

B.

At the edge of the customer's network facing the provider.

C.

In the core of the provider's network.

D.

On the customer premises.

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Questions 40

Which statement best describes a VPRN service?

Options:

A.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected by the same set of dark fibers.

B.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private switched network administered by the service provider.

C.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites are connected to a private routed network administered by the service provider.

D.

From the customers perspective it looks as if all sites have public internet access administered by the service provider.

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Questions 41

Which of the following mediums can be used in a VPWS when defining SAPs (Select three)?

Options:

A.

Ethernet.

B.

ATM.

C.

Frame Relay.

D.

Token Ring.

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Questions 42

What capability of TCP/IP allows two hosts to have multiple TCP sessions to each other simultaneously?

Options:

A.

The combination of IP source and destination address and TCP source and destination port uniquely identifies each session.

B.

The combination of IP source and destination address and the IP protocol field uniquely identifies each session.

C.

The hosts can identify the sessions using each others MAC addresses.

D.

Two hosts can not have multiple TCP sessions simultaneously.

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Questions 43

Which is the public AS in the diagram?

Options:

A.

65001

B.

65003

C.

2002

D.

All of the above.

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 44

What is the purpose of TCP flow control?

Options:

A.

It restricts the sender from sending too much data when there is congestion in the network.

B.

It allows the receiver to control the rate at which the sender transmits data.

C.

It forces the sender to send only one segment at a time.

D.

It allows the receiver to drop segments without the sender having to retransmit.

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Questions 45

Based on the network diagram (click on the exhibit), what is the command to use on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1

Options:

A.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

config router static-route 10.2.3.1 next-hop 192.168.2.0

C.

config router static-route 192.168.2.0/24 next-hop 10.2.3.1

D.

config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 46

Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF

B.

BGP

C.

X.500

D.

IS-IS

E.

Ethernet

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Questions 47

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Ethernet?

Options:

A.

It is a broadcast technology that can send frames to all devices attached to shared media.

B.

It uses a passive, wait-listen protocol called Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/ CD).

C.

It uses IP addresses to identify interfaces on the common network media.

D.

It is part of the network interface layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite.

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Questions 48

What is required if devices on different VLANs wish to communicate with each other?

Options:

A.

Devices on different VLANs cannot communicate with each other.

B.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as they are connected to the same switch.

C.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other as long as the switches they are attached to are connected to each other with an Ethernet connection.

D.

Devices on different VLANs can communicate with each other if there is an IP router to connect the VLANs.

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Questions 49

Which of the following is a characteristic of ATM?

Options:

A.

Application data is transported in 53-byte cells.

B.

ATM circuits are identified by a VPI/VCI value.

C.

Provides enhanced QoS support with 5 classes of service.

D.

Ideal for multiple services on the same physical line.

E.

All of the above.

F.

None of the above

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Questions 50

To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer?

Options:

A.

Application Layer.

B.

Transport Layer.

C.

IP Layer.

D.

Data Link Layer

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Questions 51

The TCP/IP and OSI models of protocol are similar in that they both have:

Options:

A.

An application and session layer.

B.

A network layer that provides a universal and consistent forwarding service.

C.

A transport layer with two protocols.

D.

An applications services layer with similar layering and service definitions.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is a characteristic of Port Address Translation?

Options:

A.

Resolves a Mac address given a specific IP address.

B.

Allows a single public IP address to represent multiple private IP addresses simultaneously.

C.

Maps a private address to a well known port number.

D.

Provides a one to one mapping from a private to a public address.

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Questions 53

Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

Options:

A.

172.16.224.255/18

B.

255.255.255.255/32

C.

224.1.2.1/8

D.

192.168.24.59/30

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Questions 54

What happens immediately after an Ethernet switch receives an Ethernet frame?

Options:

A.

It records the destination MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

B.

It records the source MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

C.

It floods the frame out of all its interfaces except the interface on which the frame arrived.

D.

It transmits the frame out of the appropriate interface.

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Questions 55

What problems was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve? (Choose two.):

Options:

A.

Providing path redundancy.

B.

Preventing loops.

C.

Handling collisions.

D.

Allowing flooding of multicast traffic.

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Questions 56

Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?

Options:

A.

IBM.

B.

US Military.

C.

Nokia.

D.

NASA.

E.

Bell Labs

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Questions 57

Which ATM adaptation layer is commonly used for transporting IP datagrams or non-real time data?

Options:

A.

AAL0

B.

AAL1

C.

AAL2

D.

AAL3/4

E.

AAL5

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Questions 58

What is NOT a function of the IOM?

Options:

A.

It forwards the data to the switch fabric.

B.

It discards excess data packets.

C.

It converts the incoming data to an internal format.

D.

It performs Quality of Service operations and buffers incoming data.

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Questions 59

Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"?

Options:

A.

PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a broadcast.

B.

PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a multicast.

C.

PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field is fixed.

D.

PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field can change dynamically since every station is assigned a PPP address.

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Questions 60

With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host addresses? (Choose all that apply)

Options:

A.

17.23.119.63

B.

87.99.12.159

C.

95.11.22.93

D.

192.11.25.87

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Questions 61

What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN tag.

B.

IP Header.

C.

FCS.

D.

Priority Value.

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Questions 62

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

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Questions 63

What must occur for a LAG to become operational?

Options:

A.

There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG.

B.

All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same characteristics.

C.

Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 64

What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

Options:

A.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for transmission on the transmission media.

B.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and routing the packet.

C.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as JPEG format.

D.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media

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Questions 65

If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of 'port-threshold 2' and 'action down' what will happen if the total operational links in the LAG is 2?

Options:

A.

If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF.

B.

If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF by dividing the link bandwidth by 2.

C.

The LAG will be changed to an operational state of 'down'.

D.

The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric.

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Questions 66

Which of the following are examples of Time Division Multiplexing (Choose two.)?

Options:

A.

Ethernet.

B.

Token-Ring.

C.

SONET/SDH.

D.

E1 carrier.

E.

PPP

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Questions 67

Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?

Options:

A.

The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980’s following the US military’s adoption of TCP/IP in 1983.

B.

The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.

C.

The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000 when the world wide web was conceived.

D.

Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into research and education based networks.

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Questions 68

How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 69

Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customers traffic from that of another?

Options:

A.

The provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customers Layer 2 data.

B.

The PE switch replaces the customers VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag.

C.

The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the carriers network.

D.

The PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customers traffic.

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Questions 70

What protocol is used by ping to verify IP network reachability?

Options:

A.

DCHP

B.

ICMP

C.

ARP

D.

NAT

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Questions 71

Which of the following is not supported on the Nokia 7450 ESS?

Options:

A.

Support for IPv6.

B.

Support for POS.

C.

Upgrade path to the Nokia 7750 SR.

D.

Support for IS-IS

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Questions 72

Which of the following best describes the operation of the Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)?

Options:

A.

The MDA contains the flexible fast path complex used for forwarding data.

B.

Excess data is discarded by the MDA and the remaining data forwarded for QoS processing.

C.

The MDA buffers data and applies Quality of Service (QoS) to classify and treat the data appropriately.

D.

The MDA converts data from its incoming physical format into an internal format and provides some minimal buffering.

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Questions 73

Which type of IP address contains the network number and all 1's for the host address?

Options:

A.

Unicast address.

B.

Broadcast address.

C.

Multicast address.

D.

Anycast address.

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Questions 74

Which Ethernet frame field does the receiver use to verify the integrity of the received bits?

Options:

A.

Destination address

B.

Frame check sequence

C.

Preamble

D.

Length field

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Questions 75

Which of the following is a File command in the File System context of the Command Line Interface (CLI)?

Options:

A.

time-display

B.

help

C.

type

D.

terminal

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Questions 76

Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

Options:

A.

Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

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Questions 77

A Class C network is defined by a:

Options:

A.

32-bit network prefix.

B.

24-bit network prefix.

C.

16-bit network.

D.

8-bit network.

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Questions 78

Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?

Options:

A.

ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).

B.

The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks, making an international network of networks.

C.

ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on the University of Hawaii campus.

D.

ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.

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Questions 79

Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for providing the user’s interface to the network?

Options:

A.

the application services layer

B.

The transport layer

C.

The Internet protocol layer

D.

The network interface layer

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Questions 80

On what type of device is a Service Access Point (SAP) defined?

Options:

A.

On the CE device.

B.

On the PE device.

C.

On the P device.

D.

On both CE and PE devices.

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Questions 81

A switch with the MAC FDB shown receives an Ethernet frame with source MAC address 00:00:8c:01:00:0a and destination MAC address 00:00:8c:01:00:0c. On which port is the frame forwarded?

Options:

A.

1/1/1

B.

1/1/2

C.

1/1/3

D.

1/1/4

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Questions 82

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

Options:

A.

Each customer’s traffic is isolated from other customers.

B.

Service providers utilize a shared infrastructure to support multiple VPNs.

C.

Customer data is altered as it traverses a VPN.

D.

A VPN is created specifically to meet the requirements of each customer.

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Questions 83

From the CE perspective, how does a VPWS operate?

Options:

A.

Two sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.

Two sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.

Two sites are connected through a public routed network.

D.

Two sites are connected through a private routed network.

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Questions 84

Which of the following statements about IP filters on a Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

IP filters can be applied on inbound traffic, outbound traffic, or both.

B.

IP filters can be created to filter based on IP and MAC addressing.

C.

By default, no IP filter is applied to an interface.

D.

The default action of an IP filter is to forward packets.

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Questions 85

Which field in the TCP header is used by the receiver to indicate the number of segments it can receive?

Options:

A.

Checksum

B.

SYN

C.

Destination port

D.

Window size

E.

MTU

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Questions 86

TCP is sending data in 5 segments with SEQ numbers 27000, 27500.28000, 28500, and 29000 respectively. During transmission, the segment with SEQ=28500 is dropped in the network. How does TCP handle this situation?

Options:

A.

The receiving end station sends an ACK flag with SEQ=28000 to indicate it has received a segment out of order.

B.

The receiving station sends a NACK frame with SEQ=28500 requesting that the frame be retransmitted

C.

Once the reciever's window is full. TCP assembles the payload and determines that SEQ=28500 is missing. At this point, the reciever sends the RST flag with SEQ=28500 to Request Single Transmission of the missing segment.

D.

TCP will collect the segments and forward them to the application layer where the SEQ numbers will be processed and a retransmit request will occur for the entire packet.

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Questions 87

Which of the following ports can be used to access a Nokia 7750 SR that has not been configured?

Options:

A.

CPM management Ethernet port

B.

CPM console serial port

C.

Port 1/1/1

D.

Any port on an installed MDA

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Questions 88

What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the following 4 subnets?

136.160.17.192/29

136.160.17.200/29

136.160.17.208/29

136.160.17.216/29

Options:

A.

136.160.17.128/25

B.

136.160.17.192/26

C.

136.160.17.192/27

D.

136.160.17.192/28

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Questions 89

Which of the following Nokia 7750 SR components is NOT part of the data plane?

Options:

A.

The Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)

B.

The Input/ Output Module (IOM)

C.

The eXpandable Media Adapter (XMA)

D.

The Control Processor Module (CPM)

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Questions 90

Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A sequence of label actions from one LER to another LER represents a logical tunnel known as an LSP.

B.

MPLS labels must be dynamically signaled.

C.

Labels are globally significant to the MPLS network.

D.

MPLS labels may be dynamically signaled or statically assigned by the service provider.

E.

Labels are locally significant to the MPLS router.

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Questions 91

Which of the following best describes a hub?

Options:

A.

A passive device used to connect cables without signal amplification.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 2 destination address.

D.

A device that receives and retransmits data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

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Questions 92

Which of the following egress interfaces is used to forward a packet with destination IP address 140.10.0.110?

Options:

A.

System interface

B.

Interface “toC1”

C.

Interface “toP1”

D.

Interface “toP2”

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Questions 93

Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a prefix length of /32?

Options:

A.

The subnet has only one address reserved for a loopback interface or the system interface.

B.

The subnet has a broadcast address.

C.

The subnet is configured for a point-to point link.

D.

The subnet is reserved for a multicast address groups.

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Questions 94

On the Nokia 7750 SR, which key displays all command options and their descriptions?

Options:

A.

?

B.

Tab

C.

Space bar

D.

Return

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Questions 95

What type of BGP sessions does router R2 need to establish in order to reach networks 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.5.0/27?

Options:

A.

eBGP peering sessions with routers R1, R3 and R4

B.

iBGP peering sessions with routers R1 and R5

C.

An eBGP peering session with router R1, and iBGP peering sessions with routers R3 and R4

D.

An iBGP peering session with router R1, and an eBGP peering session with router R4

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Questions 96

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact

flash?

Options:

A.

Console

B.

CLI

C.

Memory

D.

File

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Questions 97

What is the purpose of a multicast address?

Options:

A.

To provide an address that refers to all devices in a network.

B.

To provide an address that refers to a specific group of devices in a network.

C.

To provide an address that refers to a group of devices with the same IP address in different Layer 2 networks.

D.

To provide an address that refers to a single device in a network.

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Questions 98

Which of the following is a function of the Link layer?

Options:

A.

It is responsible for encapsulating packets into frames for transmission on physical media

B.

It is responsible for encapsulating packets into IP datagrams and routing them

C.

It is responsible for encapsulating application data into TCP/UDP messages

D.

It is responsible for the timing of the signals on physical media.

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Questions 99

Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Nokia 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

An IP filter is used to discard packets with checksum errors.

B.

An IP filter can allow IP packets into a network or deny IP packets from entering a network.

C.

Multiple ingress and egress filter policies can be applied to a network interface.

D.

Once an IP filter is applied, it cannot be modified.

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Questions 100

What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

Options:

A.

To select from routes with different next-hops.

B.

To select from routes with different costs.

C.

To select from routes learned from different routing protocols.

D.

To select from routes with different prefixes.

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Questions 101

What is the next-hop for network 172.16.1.0/24 installed in router 2’s routing table?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0

B.

10.10.10.1

C.

10.10.10.2

D.

10.10.10.3

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Questions 102

Router R5 receives four route updates for the same prefix 10.10.10.1/32. Which of the four routes will be installed in R5’s routing table?

Options:

A.

Route learned from router R1.

B.

Route learned from router R2.

C.

Router learned from router R3.

D.

Route learned from router R4.

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Questions 103

What type of VPN service does a VPRN provide?

Options:

A.

Layer 3 direct internet access service

B.

Layer 3 IP routed service

C.

Layer 2 point-to-point service

D.

Layer 2 multipoint service

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Questions 104

In what type of network is a broadcast storm likely to occur?

Options:

A.

An MPLS network with multiple LSPs to the same LER.

B.

An OSPF network with equal cost multiple paths.

C.

A SONET network with a ring topology.

D.

An Ethernet network with redundant paths not running STP.

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Questions 105

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram. How many collision domains are on this LAN?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

5

D.

6

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Exam Code: 4A0-100
Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Last Update: May 15, 2024
Questions: 352
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