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AHM-530 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Four types of APCs are ancillary APCs, medical APCs, significant procedure APCs, and surgical APCs. An example of a type of APC known as

Options:

A.

An ancillary APC is a biopsy

B.

Amedical APC is radiation therapy

C.

Asignificant procedure APC is a computerized tomography (CT) scan

D.

Asurgical APC is an emergency department visit for cardiovascular disease

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Questions 5

A population’s demographic factors—such as income levels, age, gender, race, and ethnicity—can influence the design of provider networks serving that population. With respect to these demographic factors, it is correct to say that

Options:

A.

higher-income populations have a higher incidence of chronic illnesses than do lowerincome populations

B.

compared to other groups, young men are more likely to be attached to particular providers

C.

a population with a high proportion of women typically requires more providers than does a population that is predominantly male

D.

Health plans should not recognize, in either the design of networks or the evaluation of provider performance, racial and ethnic differences in the member population

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Questions 6

The following statements are about managed dental care. Three of these statements are true, and one is false. Select the answer choice containing the FALSE statement.

Options:

A.

Managed dental care is federally regulated.

B.

Dental HMOs typically need very few healthcare facilities because almost all dental services are delivered in an ambulatory care setting.

C.

Currently, there are no nationally recognized standards for quality in managed dental care.

D.

Processes for selecting dental care providers vary greatly according to state regulations on managed dental care networks and the health plan’s standards.

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Questions 7

As part of the credentialing process, many health plans use the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB) to learn information about prospective members of a provider network. One true statement about the NPDB is that:

Options:

A.

It is maintained by the individual states

B.

It primarily includes information about any censures, reprimands, or admonishments against any physicians who are licensed to practice medicine in the United States

C.

The information in the NPDB is available to the general public

D.

It was established to identify and discipline medical practitioners who act unprofessionally

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Questions 8

Jay Mercer is covered under his health plan’s vision care plan, which includes coverage for clinical eye care but not for routine eye care. Recently, Mr. Mercer had a general eye examination and got a prescription for corrective lenses. Mr. Mercer’s vision care plan will cover.

Options:

A.

both the general eye examination and the prescription for corrective lenses

B.

the general eye examination only

C.

the prescription for corrective lenses only

D.

neither the general eye examination nor the prescription for corrective lenses

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Questions 9

The provider contract between the Regal Health Plan and Dr. Caroline Quill contains a type of termination clause known as termination without cause. One true statement about this clause is that it

Options:

A.

Requires Regal to send a report to the appropriate accrediting agency if the health plan terminates Dr. Quill’s contract without cause

B.

Requires that Regal must base its decision to terminate Dr. Quill’s contract on clinical criteria only

C.

Allows either Regal or Dr. Quill to terminate the contract at any time, without any obligation to provide a reason for the termination or to offer an appeals process

D.

Allows Regal to terminate Dr. Quill’s contract at the time of contract renewal only, without any obligation to provide a reason for the termination or to offer an appeals process

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Questions 10

The Justice Health Plan is eligible to submit reportable actions against medical practitioners to the National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB). Justice is considering whether it should report the following actions to the NPDB:

Action 1—A medical malpractice insurer made a malpractice payment on behalf of a dentist in Justice’s network for a complaint that was settled out of court.

Action 2—Justice reprimanded a PCP in its network for failing to follow the health plan’s referral procedures.

Action 3—Justice suspended a physician’s clinical privileges throughout the Justice network because the physician’s conduct adversely affected the welfare of a patient.

Action 4—Justice censured a physician for advertising practices that were not aligned with Justice’s marketing philosophy.

Of these actions, the ones that Justice most likely must report to the NPDB include Actions

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 11

The Zephyr Health Plan identifies members for whom subacute care might be an appropriate treatment option. The following individuals are members of Zephyr:

Selena Tovar, an oncology patient who requires radiation oncology services, chemotherapy, and rehabilitation.

Dwight Borg, who is in excellent health except that he currently has sinusitis.

Timothy O'Shea, who is beginning his recovery from brain injuries caused by a stroke.

Subacute care most likely could be an appropriate option for:

Options:

A.

Ms. Tovar, Mr. Borg, and Mr. O'Shea

B.

Ms. Tovar and Mr. O'Shea only

C.

Mr. O'Shea only

D.

Mr. Borg only

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Questions 12

One type of fee schedule payment system assigns a weighted unit value for each medical procedure or service based on the cost and intensity of that service. Under this system, the unit values for procedural services are generally higher than the unit values for cognitive services. This system is known as a

Options:

A.

Wrap-around payment system

B.

Relative value scale (RVS) payment system

C.

Resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) system

D.

Capped fee system

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Questions 13

The provider contract that Dr. Nick Mancini has with the Utopia Health Plan includes a clause that requires Utopia to reimburse Dr. Mancini on a fee-for-service (FFS) basis until 100 Utopia members have selected him as their primary care provider (PCP). At that time, Utopia will begin reimbursing him under a capitated arrangement. This clause in Dr. Mancini's provider contract is known as:

Options:

A.

an antidisparagement clause

B.

a low-enrollment guarantee clause

C.

a retroactive enrollment changes clause

D.

an eligibility guarantee clause

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Questions 14

The vision benefits offered by the Omni Health Plan include clinical eye care only. The following statements describe vision care received by Omni plan members:

• Brian Pollard received treatment for a torn retina he suffered as a result of an accident

• Angelica Herrera received a general eye examination to test her vision

• Megan Holtz received medical services for glaucoma

Of these medical services, the ones that most likely would be covered by Omni's vision coverage would be the services received by:

Options:

A.

Mr. Pollard, Ms. Herrera, and Ms. Holtz

B.

Mr. Pollard and Ms. Herrera only

C.

Mr. Pollard and Ms. Holtz only

D.

Ms. Herrera and Ms. Holtz only

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Questions 15

The Argyle Health Plan has contracted to obtain the services of the providers in the Column Medical Group, a faculty practice plan (FPP). The following statement(s) can correctly be made about this contract:

Options:

A.

Column most likely contracted with the legal group representing the FPP rather than with the individual physicians within the FPP.

B.

Column most likely will provide only highly specialized care to Argyle's plan members.

C.

Both A and B

D.

A only

E.

B only

F.

Neither A nor B

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Questions 16

Martin Breslin, age 72 and permanently disabled, is classified as dually-eligible. This information indicates that Mr. Breslin qualifies for coverage by both

Options:

A.

Medicare and private indemnity insurance, and Medicare provides primary coverage

B.

Medicare and Medicaid, and Medicare provides primary coverage

C.

Medicaid and private indemnity insurance, and Medicaid provides primary coverage

D.

Medicare and Medicaid, and Medicaid provides primary coverage

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Questions 17

The provider contract that Dr. Ted Dionne has with the Optimal Health Plan includes an arrangement that requires Dr. Dionne to notify Optimal if he contracts with another health plan at a rate that is lower than the rate offered to Optimal. Dr. Dionne must also offer this lower rate to Optimal. This information indicates that the provider contract includes a:

Options:

A.

Most-favored-nation arrangement

B.

Warranty arrangement

C.

Locum tenens arrangement

D.

Nesting arrangement

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Questions 18

Since 1981, states have had the option to experiment with new approaches to their Medicaid programs under the “freedom of choice” waivers. Under one such waiver, a Section 1915(b) waiver, states are allowed to

Options:

A.

Give Medicaid recipients complete freedom in choosing healthcare providers

B.

Give Medicaid recipients the option to choose not to enroll in a healthcare plan

C.

Mandate certain categories of Medicaid recipients to enroll in health plans

D.

Establish demonstration projects to test new approaches for delivering care to Medicaid recipients

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Questions 19

The provider contract that Dr. Lorena Chau has with the Fiesta Health Plan includes an evergreen clause. The purpose of this clause is to:

Options:

A.

Allow Fiesta to change or amend the contract without Dr. Chau's approval as long as the modifications are made in order to comply with new legal and regulatory requirements

B.

Prohibit Dr. Chau from encouraging her patients to switch from Fiesta to another health plan

C.

Prohibit Dr. Chau from encouraging her patients to switch from Fiesta to another health plan

D.

Assure that Dr. Chau provides Fiesta members with healthcare services in a timely manner appropriate to the member's medical condition

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Questions 20

The provider contract that the Canyon health plan has with Dr. Nicole Enberg specifies that she cannot sue or file any claims against a Canyon plan member for covered services, even if Canyon becomes insolvent or fails to meet its financial obligations. The contract also specifies that Canyon will compensate her under a typical discounted fee-for-service (DFFS) payment system.

During its recredentialing of Dr. Enberg, Canyon developed a report that helped the health plan determine how well she met Canyon's standards. The report included cumulative performance data for Dr. Enberg and encompassed all measurable aspects of her performance. This report included such information as the number of hospital admissions Dr. Enberg had and the number of referrals she made outside of Canyon's provider network during a specified period. Canyon also used process measures, structural measures, and outcomes measures to evaluate Dr. Enberg's performance.

Canyon used a process measure to evaluate the performance of Dr. Enberg when it evaluated whether:

Options:

A.

Dr. Enberg's young patients receive appropriate immunizations at the right ages

B.

Dr. Enberg conforms to standards for prescribing controlled substances

C.

The condition of one of Dr. Enberg's patients improved after the patient received medical treatment from Dr. Enberg

D.

Dr. Enberg's procedures are adequate for ensuring patients' access to medical care

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Questions 21

Factors that are likely to indicate increased health plan market maturity include:

Options:

A.

Increased consolidation among health plans.

B.

Increased rate of growth in health plan premium levels.

C.

Areduction in the market penetration of HMO and point-of-service (POS) products.

D.

Areduction in the frequency of performance-based reimbursement of providers.

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Questions 22

The Portway Hospital is qualified to receive Medicaid subsidy payments as a disproportionate share hospital (DHS). The DHS payments that Portway receives are

Options:

A.

Made for services rendered to specific patients

B.

Made with matching state and federal funds

C.

Included in the Medicaid capitation payment made to patients’ health plans

D.

Defined as cost-based reimbursement (CBR) equal to 100% of Portway’s reasonable costs of providing services to Medicaid recipients

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Questions 23

The Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act (TEFRA) of 1982 allowed competitive medical plans (CMPs) to participate in the Medicare program on a risk basis. Under the terms of Medicare risk contracts, CMPs were required to deliver all medically necessary Medicare-covered services in return for a

Options:

A.

fixed monthly capitation payment from CMS

B.

fee-for-service payment from the appropriate state Medicare agency

C.

mandatory premium paid by plan enrollees

D.

fee equal to twice the actuarial value of the Medicare deductible and coinsurance paid by plan enrollees

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Questions 24

As an authorized Medicare+Choice plan, the Brightwell HMO must satisfy CMS requirements regulating access to covered services. In order to ensure that its network provides adequate access, Brightwell must

Options:

A.

Allow enrollees to determine whether they will receive primary care from a physician, nurse practitioner, or other qualified network provider

B.

Base a provider’s participation in the network, reimbursement, and indemnification levels on the provider’s license or certification

C.

Define its service area according to community patterns of care

D.

Require enrollees to obtain prior authorization for all emergency or urgently needed services

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Questions 25

In most states, workers’ compensation is first-dollar and last-dollar coverage, which means that workers’ compensation programs

Options:

A.

Can place limits on the benefits they will pay for a given claim

B.

Can deny coverage for work-related illness or injury if the employer is not at fault

C.

Must pay 100% of work-related medical and disability expenses

D.

Can hold employers liable for additional amounts that result from court decisions

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Questions 26

The Azure Health Plan strives to ensure for its plan members the best possible level of care from its providers. In order to maintain such high standards, Azure uses a variety of quantitative and qualitative (behavioral) measures to determine the effectiveness of its providers. Azure then compares the clinical and operational practices of its providers with those of other providers outside the network, with the goal of identifying and implementing the practices that lead to the best outcomes.

The comparative method of evaluation that Azure uses to identify and implement the practices that lead to the best outcomes is known as

Options:

A.

Case mix analysis

B.

Outcomes research

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Provider profiling

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Questions 27

Dr. Sarah Carmichael is one of several network providers who serve on one of the Apex Health Plan’s organizational committees. The committee reviews cases against providers identified through complaints and grievances or through clinical monitoring activities. If needed, the committee formulates, approves, and monitors corrective action plans for providers. Although Apex administrators and other employees also serve on the committee, only participating providers have voting rights. The committee that Dr. Carmichael serves on is a

Options:

A.

Utilization management committee

B.

Peer review committee

C.

Medical advisory committee

D.

Credentialing committee

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Questions 28

In health plan pharmacy networks, service costs consist of two components: costs for services associated with dispensing prescription drugs and costs for cognitive services. Cognitive services typically include:

Options:

A.

making generic substitutions of drugs

B.

counseling patients about prescriptions

C.

providing patient monitoring

D.

switching prescription drugs to preferred drugs

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Questions 29

The following statements describe two types of HMOs:

The Elm HMO requires its members to select a PCP but allows the members to go to any other provider on its panel without a referral from the PCP.

The Treble HMO does not require its members to select a PCP. Treble allows its members to go to any doctor, healthcare professional, or facility that is on its panel without a referral from a primary care doctor. However, care outside of Treble's network is not reimbursed unless the provider obtains advance approval from the HMO.

Both HMOs use delegation to transfer certain functions to other organizations. Following the guidelines established by the NCQA, Elm delegated its credentialing activities to the Newnan Group, and the agreement between Elm and Newnan lists the responsibilities of both parties under the agreement. Treble delegated utilization management (UM) to an IPA. The IPA then transferred the authority for case management to the Quest Group, an organization that specializes in case management.

Both HMOs also offer pharmacy benefits. Elm calculates its drug costs according to a pricing system that requires establishing a purchasing profile for each pharmacy and basing reimbursement on the profile. Treble and the Manor Pharmaceutical Group have an arrangement that requires the use of a typical maximum allowable cost (MAC) pricing system to calculate generic drug costs under Treble's pharmacy program. The following statements describe generic drugs prescribed for Treble plan members who are covered by Treble's pharmacy benefits:

The MAC list for Drug A specifies a cost of 12 cents per tablet, but Manor pays 14 cents per tablet for this drug.

The MAC list for Drug B specifies a cost of 7 cents per tablet, but Manor pays 5 cents per tablet for this drug.

To calculate its drug costs, Elm uses a pricing system known as:

Options:

A.

Estimated acquisition cost (EAC)

B.

Package rate cost (PRC)

C.

Actual acquisition cost (AAC)

D.

Wholesale acquisition cost (WAC)

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Questions 30

Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides healthcare coverage for low-income, medically needy, and disabled individuals. Under the terms of this joint sponsorship, the

Options:

A.

Federal government is responsible for making all claim payments

B.

Federal government is responsible for determining the basic benefits that must be provided to eligible Medicaid beneficiaries

C.

State governments are responsible for setting minimum standards regarding eligibility, benefit coverage, and provider participation and reimbursement

D.

State governments are responsible for establishing overall regulation of the Medicaid program

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Questions 31

The provider contract that the Canyon health plan has with Dr. Nicole Enberg specifies that she cannot sue or file any claims against a Canyon plan member for covered services, even if Canyon becomes insolvent or fails to meet its financial obligations. The contract also specifies that Canyon will compensate her under a typical discounted fee-for-service (DFFS) payment system.

During its recredentialing of Dr. Enberg, Canyon developed a report that helped the health plan determine how well she met Canyon's standards. The report included cumulative performance data for Dr. Enberg and encompassed all measurable aspects of her performance. This report included such information as the number of hospital admissions Dr. Enberg had and the number of referrals she made outside of Canyon's provider network during a specified period. Canyon also used process measures, structural measures, and outcomes measures to evaluate Dr. Enberg's performance.

The clause which specifies that Dr. Enberg cannot sue or file any claims against a Canyon plan member for covered services is known as:

Options:

A.

Atermination with cause clause

B.

Ahold-harmless clause

C.

An indemnification clause

D.

Acorrective action clause

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Questions 32

A provider group purchased from an insurer individual stop-loss coverage for primary and specialty care services with an $8,000 attachment point and 10% coinsurance. If the group's accrued cost for the primary and specialty care treatment of one patient is $10,000, then the amount that the insurer would be responsible for reimbursing the provider group for these costs is:

Options:

A.

$200

B.

$1,000

C.

$1,800

D.

$9,000

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Questions 33

The following activities are the responsibility of either the Nova Health Plan's risk management department or its medical management department:

Options:

A.

Protecting Nova's members against harm from medical care

B.

Improving the overall health status of Nova members by coordinating care across individual episodes of care and the different providers who treat the member

C.

Protecting Nova against financial loss associated with the delivery of healthcare

D.

Establishing outreach programs to encourage the use of preventive health services by Nova's members of these activities, the ones that are more likely to be the responsibility of Nova's risk management department rather than its medical management department are activities:

E.

A, B, and C

F.

A, C, and D

G.

A and C

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Questions 34

When evaluating the success of providers in meeting standards, a health plan must make adjustments for case mix or severity. One true statement about case mix/severity adjustments is that they:

Options:

A.

Typically are more important in measuring the performance of PCPs than they are in measuring the performance of specialists

B.

Help compensate for any unusual factors that may exist in a provider's patient population or in a particular patient

C.

Tend to increase the number of providers who are considered to be outliers

D.

Allow for a more equitable comparison of data between providers of outpatient care but not providers of inpatient care

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Questions 35

Prior to the enactment of the Balanced Budget Act (BBA) of 1997, payment for Medicare-covered primary and acute care services was based on the adjusted average per capita cost (AAPCC). The AAPCC is defined as the

Options:

A.

average cost of services delivered to all patients living in a specified geographic region

B.

actuarial value of the deductible and coinsurance amounts for basic Medicare-covered benefits

C.

fee-for-service amount that the Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS) would pay for a Medicare beneficiary, adjusted for age, sex, and institutional status

D.

average fixed monthly fee paid by all Medicare enrollees in a specified geographic region

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Questions 36

One characteristic of the workers' compensation program is that:

Options:

A.

workers' compensation coverage is available to all employees, regardless of their eligibility for health insurance coverage

B.

indemnity benefits currently account for less than 10% of all workers' compensation benefits

C.

workers' compensation programs in most states require eligible employees to obtain medical treatment only from members of a provider network

D.

workers' compensation programs include deductibles and coinsurance requirements

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Questions 37

Dr. Michelle Kubiak has contracted with the Gem Health Plan, a Medicare+Choice health plan, to provide medical services to Gem's enrollees. Gem pays Dr. Kubiak $40 per enrollee per month for providing primary care. Gem also pays her an additional $10 per enrollee per month if the cost of referral services falls below a targeted level. This information indicates that, according to the substantial financial risk formula, Dr. Kubiak's referral risk under this contract is equal to:

Options:

A.

20%, and therefore this arrangement puts her at substantial financial risk

B.

20%, and therefore this arrangement does not put her at substantial financial risk

C.

25%, and therefore this arrangement puts her at substantial financial risk

D.

25%, and therefore this arrangement does not put her at substantial financial risk

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Questions 38

Grant Pelham is covered by both a workers’ compensation program and a group health plan provided by his employer. The Shipwright Health Plan administers both programs. Mr. Grant was injured while on the job and applied for benefits.

Mr. Pelham’s group health insurance plan and workers’ compensation both provide benefits to cover expenses incurred as a result of illness or injury. However, unlike traditional group insurance coverage, workers’ compensation

Options:

A.

Provides reimbursement for lost wages

B.

Requires employees who suffer a work-related illness or injury to obtain care from specified network providers

C.

Covers all injuries and illnesses, regardless of their cause

D.

Requires employees to share the cost of treatment through deductible, coinsurance, and benefit limits

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Questions 39

Edward Patillo has established a Medicare+Choice medical savings account (MSA). This MSA will allow Mr. Patillo to:

Options:

A.

Carry over any money remaining in his MSA at the end of the benefit year to the next benefit year

B.

Make withdrawals at any time from the MSA, but only for medical expenses

C.

Obtain payment at 100% of the Medicare allowable payment for all Medicare-covered services he receives, without having to pay any deductibles or out-of-pocket expenses

D.

Make withdrawals from the MSA to meet qualified medical expenses that are not paid by his high-deductible health insurance policy, but these withdrawals are taxed as income to Mr. Patillo

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Questions 40

The following situations illustrate violations of federal antitrust laws:

Situation A Two HMOs split a large employer group by agreeing to let one HMO market to some company employees and to let the second HMO market to different company employees.

Situation B Members of a physician-hospital organization (PHO) that has significant market share jointly agreed to exclude a physician from joining the PHO solely because that physician has admitting privileges at a competing hospital.

From the following answer choices, select the response that best identifies the types of violations illustrated by these situations:

Options:

A.

Situation A: horizontal division of territories; Situation B: group boycott

B.

Situation A: horizontal division of territories; Situation B: exclusive arrangement

C.

Situation A: exclusive arrangement; Situation B: group boycott

D.

Situation A: exclusive arrangement; Situation B: tying arrangement

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Questions 41

Promise, Inc., a corporation that specializes in cancer services, employs its physicians and support staff and provides facilities and ancillary services for cancer patients. Promise has contracted with the Cordelia Health Plan to provide all specialty services for Cordelia plan members who are undergoing cancer treatment. In return, Promise receives a capitated amount from Cordelia. Promise is an example of a type of specialty services organization known as a

Options:

A.

Specialty IPA

B.

Disease management company

C.

Single specialty management specialist

D.

Specialty network management company

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Questions 42

The following paragraph contains an incomplete statement. Select the answer choice containing the term that correctly completes the statement.

One important activity within the scope of network management is ensuring the quality of the health plan’s provider networks. A primary purpose of __________________ is to review the clinical competence of a provider in order to determine whether the provider meets the health plan’s preestablished criteria for participation in the network.

Options:

A.

authorization

B.

provider relations

C.

credentialing

D.

utilization management

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Questions 43

For this question, if answer choices (A) through C) are all correct, select answer choice (D). Otherwise, select the one correct answer choice.

Understanding the level of health plan penetration in a particular market can help a health plan determine which products are most appropriate for that market. Indicators of a mature health plan market include

Options:

A.

Areduction in the rate of growth in health plan premium levels

B.

Areduction in the level of outcomes management and improvement

C.

An increase in the rate of inpatient hospital utilization

D.

All of the above

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Questions 44

Health plans use a variety of sources to find candidates to recruit for their provider networks. In general, two of the most effective methods of finding candidates are through

Options:

A.

Word of mouth and on-site training programs

B.

Word of mouth and direct mail

C.

Advertisements in local newspapers and on-site training programs

D.

Advertisements in local newspapers and direct mail

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Questions 45

After HIPAA was enacted, Congress amended the law to include the Mental Health Parity Act (MHPA) of 1996, a federal requirement relating to mental health benefits. One true statement about the MHPA is that it

Options:

A.

requires all health plans to provide coverage for mental health services

B.

requires health plans to carve out mental/behavioral healthcare from other services provided by the plans

C.

allows health plans to require patients receiving mental health services to pay higher copayments than patients seeking treatment for physical illnesses

D.

prohibits health plans that offer mental health benefits from applying more restrictive limits on coverage for mental illness than on coverage for physical illness

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Questions 46

The provider contract between the Ocelot Health Plan and Dr. Enos Zorn, one of the health plan’s participating providers, is a brief contract which includes, by reference, an Ocelot provider manual. This manual contains much of the information found in Ocelot’s comprehensive provider contracts. The following statements are about Dr. Zorn’s provider contract. Select the answer choice containing the correct statement.

Options:

A.

All statements in the provider contract shall be deemed to be warranties, because all statements of facts contained in the contract must be true only in those respects material to the contract.

B.

Because the provider manual is part of the contract, Ocelot must make sure that its provider manual is comprehensive and up-to-date.

C.

Because the provider contract is a brief contract, Ocelot most likely is prohibited from amending the contract unilaterally, even if it gives Dr. Zorn advance notice of its intent to amend the contract.

D.

Areas that should be covered in the provider manual, and not in the body of the contract, include any specific legal issues relevant to the contract.

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Questions 47

From the following answer choices, choose the term that best matches the description.

Members of a physician-hospital organization (PHO) denied membership to a physician solely because the physician has admitting privileges at a competing hospital.

Options:

A.

Group boycott

B.

Horizontal division of territories

C.

Tying arrangements

D.

Concerted refusal to admit

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Questions 48

When the Rialto Health Plan determines which of the emergency services received by its plan members should be covered by the health plan, it is guided by a standard which describes emergencies as medical conditions manifesting themselves by acute symptoms of sufficient severity (including severe pain) such that a person who possesses an average knowledge of health and medicine could reasonably expect the absence of immediate medical attention to result in placing the health of the individual in serious jeopardy. This standard, which was adopted by the NAIC in 1996, is referred to as the

Options:

A.

medical necessity standard

B.

prudent layperson standard

C.

“all-or-none” standard

D.

reasonable and customary standard

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Questions 49

From the following answer choices, choose the type of clause or provision described in this situation.

The Idlewilde Health Plan includes in its provider contracts a clause or provision that allows the terms of the contract to renew unchanged each year.

Options:

A.

Cure provision

B.

Hold-harmless provision

C.

Evergreen clause

D.

Exculpation clause

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Questions 50

The Gardenia Health Plan has a national reputation for quality care. When Gardenia entered a new market, it established a preferred provider organization (PPO), a health maintenance organization (HMO), and a point-of-service product (POS) to serve the plan members in this market. All of the providers included in the HMO or the POS are included in the broader provider panel of the PPO. The POS will be a typical two-level POS that offers a cost-based incentive plans for PCPs, and the HMO is a typical staff model HMO.

One statement that can correctly be made about Gardenia’s two-level POS product is that

Options:

A.

members who self-refer without first seeing their PCPs will receive no benefits

B.

both Gardenia and the PCPs stand to benefit if the non-provider panels are kept relatively narrow

C.

members will pay higher coinsurance or copayments if they first see their PCPs each time

D.

the plan offers no financial incentives to members to choose an in-network specialist over a non-network specialist

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Questions 51

By definition, a measure of the extent to which a health plan member can obtain necessary medical services in a timely manner is known as

Options:

A.

Network management

B.

Quality

C.

Cost-effectiveness

D.

Accessibility

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Questions 52

To protect providers against business losses, many health plan-provider contracts include carve-out provisions to help providers manage financial risk. The following statements are examples of such provisions:

The Apex Health Plan carves out immunizations from PCP capitations. Apex compensates PCPs for immunizations on a case rate basis.

The Bengal Health Plan carves out behavioral healthcare services from the scope of PCP services because these services require specialized knowledge and skills that most PCPs do not possess.

From the answer choices below, select the response that best identifies the types of carve-outs used by Apex and Bengal.

Options:

A.

Apex: disease-specific carve-out

Bengal: specialty services carve-out

B.

Apex: disease-specific carve-out

Bengal: specific-service carve-out

C.

Apex: specific-service carve-out

Bengal: specialty services carve-out

D.

Apex: specific-service carve-out

Bengal: disease-specific carve-out

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Questions 53

Network managers rely on a health plan’s claims administration department for much of the information needed to manage the performance of providers who are not under a capitation arrangement. Examining claims submitted to a health plan’s claims administration department enables the health plan to

Options:

A.

determine the number of healthcare services delivered to plan members

B.

monitor the types of services provided by the health plan’s entire provider network

C.

evaluate providers’ practice patterns and compliance with the health plan’s procedures for the delivery of care

D.

all of the above

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Questions 54

The following statements are about factors that health plans should consider as they develop provider networks in rural and urban markets. Three of the statements are true, and one of the statements is false. Select the answer choice that contains the FALSE statement.

Options:

A.

Compared to providers in urban areas, providers in rural areas are less likely to offer discounts to health plans in exchange for directed patient volume.

B.

In urban areas, limiting the number of specialists on a panel usually affects the network’s market appeal more than does limiting the number of primary care physicians.

C.

The greatest opportunity to create competition in rural areas is among the specialty providers in other nearby communities.

D.

Typically, hospital contracting is easier in urban areas than in rural areas.

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Questions 55

Health plans are required to follow several regulations and guidelines regarding the access and adequacy of their provider networks. The Federal Employee Health Benefits Program (FEHBP) regulations, for example, require that health plans

Options:

A.

Allow members direct access to OB/GYN services

B.

Allow members direct access to prescription drug services

C.

Provide access to Title X family-planning clinics

D.

Provide average office waiting times of no more than 30 minutes for appointments with plan providers

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Questions 56

One important aspect of network management is profiling, or provider profiling. Profiling is most often used to

Options:

A.

measure the overall performance of providers who are already participants in the network

B.

assess a provider’s overall satisfaction with a plan’s service protocols and other operational areas

C.

verify a prospective provider’s professional licenses, certifications, and training

D.

familiarize a provider with a plan’s procedures for authorizations and referrals

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Questions 57

During the credentialing process, a health plan verifies the accuracy of information on a prospective network provider’s application. One true statement regarding this process is that the health plan

Options:

A.

has a legal right to access a prospective provider’s confidential medical records at any time

B.

must limit any evaluations of a prospective provider’s office to an assessment of quantitative factors, such as the number of double-booked appointments a physicianaccepts at the end of each day

C.

is prohibited by law from conducting primary verification of such data as a prospective provider’s scope of medical malpractice insurance coverage and federal tax identification number

D.

must complete the credentialing process before a provider signs the network contract or must include in the signed document a provision that the final contract is contingent upon the completion of the credentialing process

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Questions 58

Dr. Eve Barlow is a specialist in the Amity Health Plan’s provider network. Dr. Barlow’s provider contract with Amity contains a typical most-favored-nation arrangement. The purpose of this arrangement is to

Options:

A.

Require Dr. Barlow and Amity to use arbitration to resolve any disputes regarding the contract

B.

Specify that the contract is to be governed by the laws of the state in which Amity has its headquarters

C.

Require Dr. Barlow to charge Amity her lowest rate for a medical service she has provided to an Amity plan member, even if the rate is lower than the price negotiated in the contract

D.

State that the contract creates an employment or agency relationship, rather than an independent contractor relationship, between Dr. Barlow and Amity

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Questions 59

The following statements can correctly be made about the advantages and disadvantages to an health plan of using the various delivery options for pharmacy services.

Options:

A.

A disadvantage of using open pharmacy networks is that the health plan’s control over costs is limited to setting reimbursement levels.

B.

An advantage of using performance-based systems is that they tend to increase participation in the health plan’s pharmacy network.

C.

A disadvantage of using customized pharmacy networks is that these networks typically can be implemented only in companies with fewer than 500 employees.

D.

All of these statements are correct.

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Questions 60

Lakesha Frazier, a member of a health plan in a rural area, had been experiencing heart palpitations and shortness of breath. Ms. Frazier’s primary care provider (PCP) referred her to a local hospital for an electrocardiogram. The results of the electrocardiogram were transmitted for diagnosis via high-speed data transmission to a heart specialist in a city 500 miles away. This information indicates that the results of Ms. Frazier’s electrocardiogram were transmitted using a communications system known as

Options:

A.

Anarrow network

B.

An integrated healthcare delivery system

C.

Telemedicine

D.

Customized networking

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Exam Code: AHM-530
Exam Name: Network Management
Last Update: May 15, 2024
Questions: 202
$64  $159.99
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