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IT-Risk-Fundamentals Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which types of controls are designed to avoid undesirable events, errors, and other adverse occurrences?

Options:

A.

Corrective controls

B.

Detective controls

C.

Preventive controls

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Questions 5

The PRIMARY goal of a business continuity plan (BCP) is to enable the enterprise to provide:

Options:

A.

a detailed list of hardware and software requirements to enable business functionality after an interruption.

B.

an immediate return of all business functionality after an interruption.

C.

a sufficient level of business functionality immediately after an interruption.

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Questions 6

A key risk indicator (KRI) is PRIMARILY used for which of the following purposes?

Options:

A.

Optimizing risk management

B.

Predicting risk events

C.

Facilitating dashboard reporting

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Questions 7

Which of the following represents a vulnerability associated with legacy systems using older technology?

Options:

A.

Lost opportunity to capitalize on emerging technologies

B.

Rising costs associated with system maintenance

C.

Inability to patch or apply system updates

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Questions 8

A business continuity plan (BCP) is:

Options:

A.

a methodical plan detailing the steps of incident response activities.

B.

a document of controls that reduce the risk of losing critical processes.

C.

a risk-related document that focuses on business impact assessments (BIAs).

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Questions 9

The PRIMARY reason for the implementation of additional security controls is to:

Options:

A.

avoid the risk of regulatory noncompliance.

B.

adhere to local data protection laws.

C.

manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels.

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Questions 10

The use of risk scenarios to guide senior management through a rapidly changing market environment is considered a key risk management

Options:

A.

benefit.

B.

incentive.

C.

capability.

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Questions 11

Which of the following is an example of an inductive method to gather information?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability analysis

B.

Controls gap analysis

C.

Penetration testing

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Questions 12

A risk practitioner has been tasked with analyzing new risk events added to the risk register. Which of the following analysis methods would BEST enable the risk practitioner to minimize ambiguity and subjectivity?

Options:

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Delphi method

C.

Brainstorming

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Questions 13

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are used for which of the following purposes when developing a project plan?

Options:

A.

Determining resource allocation

B.

Assigning risk owners

C.

Performing a gap analysis

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Questions 14

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern with vulnerability assessments?

Options:

A.

Threat mitigation

B.

Report size

C.

False positives

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Questions 15

When selecting a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the KRI:

Options:

A.

supports established KPIs.

B.

produces multiple and varied results.

C.

is a reliable predictor of the risk event.

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Questions 16

Which of the following is MOST likely to expose an organization to adverse threats?

Options:

A.

Complex enterprise architecture

B.

Improperly configured network devices

C.

Incomplete cybersecurity training records

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Questions 17

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a good risk culture?

Options:

A.

The enterprise learns from negative outcomes and treats the root cause.

B.

The enterprise enables discussions of risk and facts within the risk management functions.

C.

The enterprise places a strong emphasis on the positive and negative elements of risk.

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Questions 18

Of the following, who is BEST suited to be responsible for continuous monitoring of risk?

Options:

A.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

Risk analysts

C.

Risk owners

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Questions 19

An enterprise that uses a two-factor authentication login method for accessing sensitive data has implemented which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Corrective

C.

Detective

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Questions 20

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of effective asset valuation?

Options:

A.

It protects the enterprise from paying more for protection than the net worth of the asset.

B.

It assures that asset valuation is consistently applied to all assets across the enterprise.

C.

It ensures assets are linked to processes and classified based on business value.

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Questions 21

An enterprise has performed a risk assessment for the risk associated with the theft of sales team laptops while in transit. The results of the assessment concluded that the cost of mitigating the risk is higher than the potential loss. Which of the following is the BEST risk response strategy?

Options:

A.

Limit travel with laptops.

B.

Accept the inherent risk.

C.

Encrypt the sales team laptops.

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Questions 22

Which of the following is an example of a preventive control?

Options:

A.

File integrity monitoring (FIM) on personal database stores

B.

Air conditioning systems with excess capacity to permit failure of certain components

C.

Data management checks on sensitive data processing procedures

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Questions 23

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to include previously overlooked risk in a risk report?

Options:

A.

Assurance is needed that the risk dashboard is complete and comprehensive.

B.

Overlooked or ignored risk may become relevant in the future.

C.

The risk report must contain the current state of all risk.

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Questions 24

As part of the control monitoring process, frequent control exceptions are MOST likely to indicate:

Options:

A.

excessive costs associated with use of a control.

B.

misalignment with business priorities.

C.

high risk appetite throughout the enterprise.

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Questions 25

To establish an enterprise risk appetite, an organization should:

Options:

A.

normalize risk taxonomy across the organization.

B.

aggregate risk statements for all lines of business.

C.

establish risk tolerance for each business unit.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is the MAIN advantage of a risk taxonomy?

Options:

A.

It enables risk quantification.

B.

It provides a scheme for classifying categories of risk.

C.

It promotes alignment with industry best practices for risk management.

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Questions 27

The MOST important reason for developing and monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they provide:

Options:

A.

measurable metrics for acceptable risk levels.

B.

information about control compliance.

C.

an early warning of possible risk materialization.

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Questions 28

A business impact analysis (BIA) generates the MOST benefit when:

Options:

A.

keeping impact criteria and cost data as generic as possible.

B.

measuring existing impact criteria exclusively in financial terms.

C.

using standardized frequency and impact metrics.

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Questions 29

An enterprise has initiated a project to implement a risk-mitigating control. Which of the following would provide senior management with the MOST useful information on the project's status?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk heat map

C.

Risk report

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Questions 30

An enterprise’s risk policy should be aligned with its:

Options:

A.

current risk.

B.

risk capacity.

C.

risk appetite.

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Questions 31

What is the basis for determining the sensitivity of an IT asset?

Options:

A.

Potential damage to the business due to unauthorized disclosure

B.

Cost to replace the asset if lost, damaged, or deemed obsolete

C.

Importance of the asset to the business

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Questions 32

Incomplete or inaccurate data may result in:

Options:

A.

availability risk.

B.

relevance risk.

C.

integrity risk.

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Questions 33

Which of the following is a KEY contributing component for determining risk rankings to direct risk response?

Options:

A.

Cost of mitigating controls

B.

Severity of a vulnerability

C.

Maturity of risk management processes

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Questions 34

Why is risk identification important to an organization?

Options:

A.

It provides a review of previous and likely threats to the enterprise.

B.

It ensures risk is recognized and the impact to business objectives is understood.

C.

It enables the risk register to detail potential impacts to an enterprise's business processes.

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Questions 35

Which of the following occurs earliest in the risk response process?

Options:

A.

Developing risk response plans

B.

Prioritizing risk responses

C.

Analyzing risk response options

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Exam Code: IT-Risk-Fundamentals
Exam Name: IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam
Last Update: May 17, 2025
Questions: 118
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