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CTFL_Syll2018 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

Options:

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

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Questions 5

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

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Questions 6

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Options:

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

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Questions 7

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

Options:

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

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Questions 8

System testing is:

Options:

A.

Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.

B.

The responsibility of the users of a system.

C.

Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a development project.

D.

Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

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Questions 9

Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

Options:

A.

Adjudicator

B.

Moderator

C.

Governor

D.

Corrector

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Questions 10

How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

Options:

A.

By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the quality standards set for the project

B.

By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%

C.

By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve processes and thus help to reduce the defect count

D.

By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

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Questions 11

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

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Questions 12

Given the following requirement:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

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Questions 13

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Questions 14

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

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Questions 15

Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

Options:

A.

An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.

B.

The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.

C.

A testable component derived from business requirements.

D.

Applies to software testing only.

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to delivered software and uses impact analysis to minimise the amount of regression testing needed

B.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to software under development before initial delivery and uses the test plan to determine how much regression testing to do

C.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the test environment and uses testing tools to perform regression testing

D.

Maintenance testing is triggered by changes to the software environment and uses structural testing to ensure the changes function correctly

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Questions 17

Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

B.

Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered

C.

Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques

D.

Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

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Questions 18

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Options:

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

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Questions 19

A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.

Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non-functional requirements expressed in this statement?

Options:

A.

Performance, Usability, Regression.

B.

System, Load, Fail-over.

C.

Performance, Load, Stress.

D.

Load, Volume and Component.

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Questions 20

When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the beginning of the project

B.

As soon as requirements have been approved

C.

As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted

D.

At any time before UAT begins

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Questions 21

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

Options:

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

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Questions 22

Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

Options:

A.

To be based on specifications

B.

To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation

C.

To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system

D.

To include both functional and non-functional testing

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Questions 23

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

Options:

A.

Test planning ensures the level of detail in test procedures is appropriate for test execution

B.

Test planning schedules test execution but does not assign resources

C.

Test planning defines the overall approach to testing but does not schedule specific activities such as test execution

D.

Test planning identifies test objectives related to scope and risk but does not define the level of detail for test procedures used in test execution

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Questions 24

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Options:

A.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

B.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

C.

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

D.

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

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Questions 25

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 26

What can testing demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B.

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

C.

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

D.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

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Questions 27

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

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Questions 28

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

Options:

A.

Planning and control

B.

Analysis and design

C.

Implementation and execution

D.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

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Questions 29

In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Options:

A.

Event C from S3

B.

Event E from S4

C.

Event B from S2

D.

Event D from S4

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Questions 30

Which of the following are triggers for Maintenance testing?

a) System migration from one platform to another.

b) Retirement of a system.

c) Preparation for an audit of a system.

d) Modifications to a system.

e) Development of a whole new system.

Options:

A.

a, c and d.

B.

b, c and e.

C.

a, d and e.

D.

a, b and d.

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Questions 31

Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Options:

A.

Data migration

B.

System retirement

C.

System modification

D.

Introduction of a test management tool

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Questions 32

Which one of the following statements about techniques for estimating test effort is correct?

Options:

A.

The metrics-based technique finds the most similar former project and uses its original estimate for the current project.

B.

The expert-based approach is based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks or by subject matter experts.

C.

The metrics-based technique uses metrics supplied by the current test team based on their subjective feel for effort required.

D.

In an expert-based approach, the test lead with the most years in the role is chosen to produce the estimate.

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Questions 33

In which development life cycle model is regression testing an increasingly important activity as the project progresses?

Options:

A.

V-model.

B.

Waterfall.

C.

Scrum.

D.

Progressive.

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Questions 34

Which of the following statements gives the BEST example of a trigger for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of a customer service application

B.

Business approval to fund a project to develop an e-commerce web application

C.

Completion of the requirements specifications for an application

D.

Completion of the designs for an application

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only.

B.

Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box testing has been finished.

C.

Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing

D.

Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test.

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Questions 36

Which test level is concerned with testing the smallest bodies of software?

Options:

A.

Component test

B.

Feature test

C.

Functional test

D.

Subsystem test

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Questions 37

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

Options:

A.

The expected result for the list friends response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

B.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found it quite difficult to follow the test script.

C.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

D.

SQL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority

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Questions 38

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Options:

A.

Prepare and acquire the test data

B.

Set up and check the test environment

C.

Write test summary reports

D.

Review tests developed by others

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Questions 39

What of the following statements regarding walkthrough are NOT true?

Options:

A.

A walkthrough is lead by a moderator and requires pre-meeting preparation and post meeting follow up

B.

A walkthrough may take the form of scenarios, dry runs and peer group review

C.

The purpose of a walkthrough is to establish common understanding of a document and to find possible defects in it

D.

Pre-meeting preparation, documentation and distribution of results are optional for a walkthrough

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Questions 40

When comparing Static and Dynamic test techniques, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Static Testing finds failures, whilst Dynamic Testing only finds the cause of failures.

B.

Static Testing techniques, such as reviews, can be undertaken before Dynamic Testing, making defects cheaper to remove.

C.

Static Testing is based on the execution of code, whist Dynamic Testing relies on examination and analysis.

D.

Only Static Testing has the objective of identifying defects.

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Questions 41

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

A test team with high level of independence, may suffer from lower familiarity with the product

B.

Development team may find many defects since they are familiar with the code

C.

Tests designed by a person from different group in the organization is the highest independence level

D.

Tests designed by a person in the development team other than the person who wrote the code is the lowest level of independence

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Questions 42

Which of the following options BEST explain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

Options:

A.

If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects

B.

Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free

C.

Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules

D.

Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

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Questions 43

For a given set of test-cases, which of the following is a benefit of running these tests with a test automation tool?

Options:

A.

Test coverage is increased.

B.

The number of found bugs is reduced.

C.

The total cost of the test project always decreases

D.

The time spent on repetitive tasks is reduced

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Questions 44

Which of the following statements is true?

I) Test planning activities include selecting the test object

II) Test strategy implementation is NOT a part of test planning

III) Choosing appropriate test techniques is part of test design

IV) Test schedule and exit criteria modification are part of test planning

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

II, III

C.

I.IV

D.

III. IV

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Questions 45

Consider a document containing a classification of all the defects found during the system test phase and after the delivery in the production environment This document can be considered a test basis for which of the following test design techniques?

Options:

A.

Structure-based testing

B.

Experience-based testing

C.

Decision coverage testing

D.

Specification-based testing

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Questions 46

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

B.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

C.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

D.

More subjective assessment

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Questions 47

Which type of automation test design is used in the example below?

An automation team designs an automation framework for testing of their web-based applications. Realizing that they need to use different data for different test cycles, they decide not to hard-code any data

in their scripts Instead they read all the data from text files while test execution is in progress.

Options:

A.

Dynamic test design

B.

Data-driven

C.

Keyword-driven

D.

Data coverage analysis

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Questions 48

You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an internet shop selling baby shoes The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input parameters:

- There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size based on the following criteria:

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8.

B.

There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter: age <= 0, and age > 25

C.

All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases.

D.

All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases.

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Questions 49

What is a "test harness"?

Options:

A.

One of the topics that needs to be covered in the final Test Report.

B.

A general name for test data that is used by the test cases.

C.

A detailed description of a test case to enable its execution by non-expert tester.

D.

A test environment comprised of stubs and drivers needed to execute a test.

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Questions 50

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program.

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process.

C.

Checking that all decisions are based on a numeric value.

D.

Checking that at least 100% decision coverage has been achieved, as this guarantees 100% statement coverage.

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Questions 51

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

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Questions 52

Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

Options:

A.

The predicted number of defects and the amount of rework required

B.

The ratio of developers to testers in the project team

C.

The planned use of a project management tool to schedule tasks

D.

The responsibilities for testers and developers being clearly defined

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Questions 53

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

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Questions 54

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

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Questions 55

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

D.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

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Questions 56

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

Options:

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

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Questions 57

Which of the following defect types are LEAST likely to be discovered when using static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Variables that are never used

B.

Coding standard violations

C.

Memory leaks

D.

Uncalled functions and procedures

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Questions 58

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

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Questions 59

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

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Questions 60

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Options:

A.

Add an impact analysis

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add information about which web browser was used

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Questions 61

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Options:

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

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Questions 62

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

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Questions 63

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

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Questions 64

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Options:

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

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Questions 65

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

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Questions 66

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

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Questions 67

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

Options:

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

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Questions 68

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

Options:

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

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Questions 69

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

Options:

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

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Questions 70

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

Options:

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

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Questions 71

Which of the test cases below will exercise both outcomes from decision 2? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

P = 24, Q = 20, P=24, Q=25

B.

P = 36, Q = 36, P=37, Q=35

C.

P = 42, Q = 43, P=42, Q=42

D.

P = 37, Q = 36, P=35, Q=36

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Questions 72

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

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Questions 73

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

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Questions 74

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

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Questions 75

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

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Questions 76

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Options:

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

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Questions 77

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Refer to the exhibit

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

Options:

A.

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B.

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

C.

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

D.

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

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Questions 78

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

Options:

A.

Equivalence partitioning

B.

State transition testing

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Statement coverage

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Questions 79

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Options:

A.

Determine differences between files or databases.

B.

Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.

C.

Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.

D.

Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised.

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Questions 80

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

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Questions 81

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

Options:

A.

Executing the software work product

B.

Manually examining the code or project documentation

C.

Automated analysis of the code or project documentation

D.

Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation

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Questions 82

What is the ideal number of regression test cycles?

Options:

A.

As many as time and budget allow

B.

2

C.

1

D.

Until the quality requirements are met

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Questions 83

Which of the following statements correctly describe Black-Box Testing''

Options:

A.

Test on an individual software component in isolation from other components, to avoid external influence

B.

Tests that investigate the input vs. trfe output behavior of a software system.

C.

Test derived from the ability of the testers and their intuition and experience with similar applications and technologies (sometimes used to strengthen systematic techniques)

D.

Test of the interfaces between components and of the interactions with different parts of a system

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Questions 84

Load testing tool checks for:

Options:

A.

presence of bugs in user interface

B.

the number of testers needed in order to achieve "dead line"

C.

correct functional behavior of the system under test

D.

time response and resource utilization

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Questions 85

You are performing a review of your colleague’s test cases based on the following test basis document:

The Test Cases are as follows:

TC1. Success – valid ‘User Name’ and ‘Password’; Customer Menu displayed

TC2. Failure – ‘User Name’ field has blank entry; Error Number 12 displayed

TC3. Failure – ‘User Id’ entered does not exist on database (i.e. unregistered user); Error Number 23 displayed

TC4. Failure – ‘Password’ entered does not match user’s password on database; Error Number 24 displayed

You are guided by the following checklist in your review:

C1. There must be one test case to cover success

C2. There must be one test case for each error path (e.g. validation failure)

C3. Each test case must use terminology consistent with the test basis document (field names, error numbering, etc.)

Record a separate defect for each missing test case (checklist items C1 and C2) and for each test case that does not meet checklist item C3.

How many defects should you record?

Options:

A.

1.

B.

2.

C.

3.

D.

4.

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Questions 86

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

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Questions 87

For a mandatory input field 'ZIP code" the following rules are given:

1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits

2 - The code has to exist in the pest office's official ZIP code list

Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

8

D.

3

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Questions 88

What are metrics NOT used for?

Options:

A.

To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

B.

To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.

C.

To apply to the RAD development model.

D.

To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.

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Questions 89

Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

Options:

A.

It uses decision coverage for completeness.

B.

It ensures all possible branches in the code are tested.

C.

It is based on the internal structure of the system.

D.

It can be done without reference to the internal structure of the component or system.

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Questions 90

Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

Options:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

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Questions 91

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 92

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?

a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.

b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.

c)Always outsource testing activities.

d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

a, b and c

C.

a, b and d

D.

a and c

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Questions 93

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U

Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V

Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X

Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B.

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

D.

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

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Questions 94

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Questions 95

Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Options:

A.

Analysing the test basis

B.

Assigning resources for the planned activities

C.

Designing the test environments

D.

Writing a test execution schedule

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Questions 96

What one of the following would be a typical objective of running a pilot project when introducing a new tool into an organisation?

Options:

A.

To establish whether the tool is available for a free trial period (and for how long).

B.

To provide training, coaching, and mentoring for users of the tool.

C.

To develop a clear set of requirements and objective criteria against which the tool can be evaluated.

D.

To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determining what would need to change.

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Questions 97

Which of the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

Options:

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures

B.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

C.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects

D.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

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Questions 98

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

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Questions 99

A student needs to score at least 50 points to pass. If they score at least 100 points they will achieve a merit and if they score at least 150 points they will achieve a distinction.

Which two values are in the same partition?

Options:

A.

45 and 55.

B.

55 and 120.

C.

50 and 60.

D.

45 and 170.

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Questions 100

What is a peer review?

Options:

A.

An informal review without moderator

B.

A review done by developers and testers together

C.

A review done by developers only

D.

A review done by colleagues at the same organizational level

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Questions 101

Which of the following statements about test execution effort is true?

Options:

A.

An increase in number of testers always reduces testing time.

B.

A large number of test repetitions mean less test execution effort.

C.

The test execution effort is independent of the number of test environments.

D.

The test case execution effort is dependent on the build quality.

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Questions 102

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

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Questions 103

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

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Questions 104

Which of the following test techniques is structure-based?

Options:

A.

Control flow testing

B.

Use case testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Decision table testing

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Questions 105

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

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Questions 106

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

Options:

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

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Questions 107

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

Options:

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

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Questions 108

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

Options:

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

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Questions 109

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll2018
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018)
Last Update: May 16, 2024
Questions: 365
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