IDPX Sample Questions Answers

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of the design development phase, which involves refining the schematic design into detailed drawings and specifications. The interior designer’s deliverables in this phase focus on elements within their scope, such as spatial layouts and finishes.

Option A (Power and data plans, floor plans with partition types):Power and data plans are typically the responsibility of the electrical engineer, not the interior designer, although the designer coordinates these elements. Floor plans with partition types are correct, but this option is incomplete without other key deliverables.

Option B (Floor plans, reflected ceiling plans with HVAC ductwork layout):Floor plans are a correct deliverable, but reflected ceiling plans with HVAC ductwork layout are typically prepared by the mechanical engineer. The interior designer specifies ceiling finishes and fixture types, not HVAC ductwork.

Option C (Reflected ceiling plans with fixture types, floor plans with partition types):This is the correct choice. In the design development phase, the interior designer is responsible for floor plans with partition types (defining spatial layouts and wall constructions) and reflected ceiling plans with fixture types (e.g., lighting, diffusers), which specify the design intent for ceiling elements. These deliverables are within the designer’s scope and critical for this phase.

Option D (Power and data plans, reflected ceiling plans with sprinkler head locations):Power and data plans are the electrical engineer’s responsibility, and sprinkler head locations are typically specified by the fire protection engineer. While the designer coordinates these elements, they are not the designer’s deliverables.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on the design development phase and designer responsibilities.

“In the design development phase, the interior designer’s deliverables include floor plans with partition types and reflected ceiling plans with fixture types, detailing the spatial and aesthetic design intent.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Design Development Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that floor plans with partition types and reflected ceiling plans with fixture types are key deliverables for the interior designer in the design development phase. These documents refine the design and prepare it for contract documents, making Option C the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand deliverables in the design development phase (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Design Development).

Apply drawing preparation to advance the design process (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Documents).

The permit process, per standard building code administration (e.g., IBC), follows a logical sequence: Preliminary review (submission and code check by the authority having jurisdiction), permit issued (approval to start construction), inspections (verification during and after construction), and temporary occupancy (allowing use before final certificate if conditions are met). Option A reverses the order by starting with inspections. Option B misplaces preliminary review after issuance. Option D begins with temporary occupancy, which is impossible without prior permitting. Only C reflects the correct chronological flow.

Verified Answer from Official Source:C - preliminary review, permit issued, inspections, temporary occupancy

"The permit process sequence is: preliminary review by the AHJ, issuance of the permit, inspections during construction, and issuance of temporary occupancy when applicable." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 1: Codes and Standards)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ outlines this sequence to ensure designers understand the regulatory steps required for legal construction and occupancy, aligning with IBC procedures.

Objectives:

Understand permitting processes (IDPX Objective 1.7).

High-efficiency air filters (e.g., HEPA or MERV 13+) in HVAC systems remove pollen and allergens from indoor air, reducing symptoms effectively, per ASHRAE 62.1. Non-operable windows (A) limit fresh air, potentially worsening air quality. Passive ventilation (C) introduces outdoor pollen, aggravating allergies. Relocation (D) may help but doesn’t address air quality building-wide. Filters (B) are the most direct, systemic solution for allergy relief.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - Install high-efficiency air filters

"High-efficiency air filters reduce indoor allergens like pollen, improving air quality for employees with allergies." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Building Systems)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ highlights filters as a key HVAC upgrade for occupant health, aligning with air quality standards and allergy management.

Objectives:

Improve indoor air quality (IDPX Objective 2.5).

For a small interior design firm managing a project in a distant location, efficiency and resource management are critical. A joint-venture with a local design firm allows the small firm to leverage local expertise, established relationships, and on-site presence without overextending its own staff or budget. Option A (weekly visits) is impractical and costly for a small firm due to travel expenses and time. Option C (partnering with a company local to the designer) doesn’t address on-site oversight needs. Option D (hiring an employee to stay on-site) is resource-intensive and less feasible for a small firm compared to collaborating with an existing local entity. Joint-venturing balances cost, control, and efficiency.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - joint-venture with a design firm local to the project

"For projects in remote locations, small firms can efficiently manage progress by forming a joint-venture with a local design firm to share responsibilities and ensure consistent oversight." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Administration)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ highlights that collaboration with local professionals is a practical strategy for small firms to maintain project control and meet deadlines without excessive resource allocation.

Objectives:

Understand project management strategies (IDPX Objective 3.3).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s ability to manage complex projects with multiple stakeholders, particularly in challenging contexts like a non-profit community center in a historic building. The designer must navigate the needs and preferences of diverse groups while ensuring the project meets its goals.

Option A (Balancing the various stakeholders’ preferences):This is the correct choice. The project involves a wide range of stakeholders—the benefactor, board, director, staff, community members, historic preservation committee, and contractor—each with potentially conflicting preferences and priorities. Balancing these diverse interests while keeping the project on track is the designer’s greatest challenge, as it requires diplomacy, communication, and compromise to achieve a cohesive design that satisfies all parties.

Option B (Working with the contractor towards a unique design):While working with the contractor is important, the question does not indicate that the design needs to be unique in a way that poses a significant challenge. Contractor coordination is a standard part of the designer’s role and not the greatest challenge in this context.

Option C (Balancing material and finishes that have historical significance):While historic preservation is a challenge due to the building’s status, the designer has already met with the historic preservation committee, suggesting that guidelines for materials and finishes are likely established. This challenge, while significant, is more specific and manageable compared to balancing stakeholder preferences.

Option D (Working with the community towards a concept that will use the space as desired):Engaging the community is important, but this is only one group among many stakeholders. The broader challenge lies in balancing the community’s desires with those of the other stakeholders, which is encompassed in Option A.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on project management and stakeholder coordination.

“In projects with multiple stakeholders, the designer’s greatest challenge is often balancing the diverse preferences and priorities of all parties to achieve a cohesive design solution.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Project Management Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide highlights that managing multiple stakeholders with differing preferences is a significant challenge, especially in community-driven projects like a non-profit center. The designer must act as a mediator to align these interests, making Option A the greatest challenge in this scenario.

Objectives:

Understand the challenges of managing multiple stakeholders (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Management).

Apply communication strategies to balance diverse priorities (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Professional Practice).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of project closeout and documentation retention. Retaining the correct documents is critical for legal, professional, and future reference purposes.

Option A (Record (as-built) drawings and specifications):This is the correct choice. Record (as-built) drawings reflect the final constructed conditions, including any changes made during construction, and specifications document the materials and methods used. These are essential for the designer’s records, as they provide a complete and accurate record of the project for future reference, liability protection, and potential use in similar projects.

Option B (Post-occupancy evaluation and specifications):A post-occupancy evaluation (POE) is useful for assessing the project’s performance, but it is not a standard document retained for legal or reference purposes in the same way as as-built drawings. Specifications are important, but without the as-built drawings, this option is incomplete.

Option C (Record (as-built) drawings and inspection report):Inspection reports (e.g., from code officials) are typically retained by the contractor or owner, not the designer, unless specified in the contract. While as-built drawings are critical, the inspection report is not a standard document for the designer’s files.

Option D (Post-occupancy evaluation and inspection report):Neither the POE nor the inspection report are core documents for the designer’s project files. They may be retained if relevant, but they do not provide the comprehensive record needed for future reference like as-built drawings and specifications.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on project closeout and documentation.

“Upon project completion, the designer should retain record (as-built) drawings and specifications in their files to document the final design and construction for future reference and liability protection.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Project Closeout Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that record (as-built) drawings and specifications are the primary documents the designer should retain at project completion. These documents provide a complete record of the project, ensuring the designer has accurate information for future use or legal purposes, making Option A the correct choice.

Objectives:

Understand documentation requirements for project closeout (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Closeout).

Apply professional practices for record retention (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Professional Practice).

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS), now Safety Data Sheets (SDS), provide detailed information on a finish material’s chemical composition, VOC emissions, and health hazards, critical for assessing indoor air quality (IAQ) per OSHA and EPA standards. Time for climatization (A) is vague and unrelated to IAQ evaluation. Carbon monoxide sensors (B) detect CO, not material emissions. Manufacturer’s specs (D) cover performance, not safety or emissions comprehensively. MSDS/SDS (C) is the designer’s key tool for IAQ impact analysis.

Verified Answer from Official Source:C - material safety data sheets

"To evaluate a finish material’s impact on indoor air quality, the designer requests material safety data sheets (MSDS) for emission and hazard data." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Materials and Finishes)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ aligns with OSHA and EPA, emphasizing SDS as essential for identifying pollutants like VOCs, ensuring healthy interiors.

Objectives:

Assess materials for IAQ (IDPX Objective 2.5).

A computer room (e.g., server room) requires a dedicated HVAC system to maintain precise temperature and humidity control, protecting sensitive equipment from heat and static, per ASHRAE standards. An office in a high rise (A) typically uses a central HVAC system shared across floors. A healthcare lobby (C) relies on general building HVAC, not a dedicated unit, unless critical (e.g., isolation). Computer rooms (B) have unique cooling demands, making a dedicated system most likely.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - computer room in a school

"Computer rooms most likely require dedicated HVAC systems to ensure consistent environmental control for equipment performance." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Building Systems)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ highlights dedicated HVAC for spaces with specialized needs, like computer rooms, to prevent damage and ensure operational reliability.

Objectives:

Integrate specialized building systems (IDPX Objective 2.9).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s role in construction administration, including the review of pay applications. A pay application is a request for payment submitted by the general contractor, detailing the work completed and materials provided. The designer’s role is to verify that the requested amounts align with the contract and the work performed.

Option A (Utilities and property taxes):Utilities and property taxes are typically the owner’s responsibility, not part of the contractor’s pay application for construction work. These costs are not within the designer’s purview to approve.

Option B (Subcontractors’ travel expenses):Travel expenses for subcontractors may or may not be reimbursable, depending on the contract terms. However, they are not typically a standard part of a pay application for construction work and are not the designer’s responsibility to approve unless explicitly included in the contract.

Option C (Delivered materials stored on-site):This is the correct choice. According to standard construction contracts (e.g., AIA documents), the contractor can request payment for materials that have been delivered and stored on-site, provided they are properly documented, insured, and protected. The designer should verify that the materials are on-site and meet the specifications before approving this portion of the pay application.

Correction of Typographical Error:

The original question lists only three options (A, B, C), but the NCIDQ format typically includes four options (A, B, C, D). The missing Option D does not affect the answer, as Option C is clearly the correct choice based on the given options. For completeness, a potential Option D might be something like “General contractor’s overhead and profit,” which is also part of a pay application but is less specific than delivered materials and not the primary focus of the designer’s approval in this context.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on construction administration and pay application review.

“When reviewing a pay application, the designer should approve amounts for work completed and materials delivered and stored on-site, ensuring they align with the contract documents and specifications.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Construction Administration Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that the designer’s role in pay application review includes approving costs for delivered materials stored on-site, as these are part of the contractor’s reimbursable expenses under standard construction contracts. This ensures that the contractor is paid for materials that are ready for installation, making Option C the correct choice.

Objectives:

Understand the designer’s role in reviewing pay applications (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Construction Administration).

Apply contract administration principles to verify payment requests (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).

Written specifications, per CSI MasterFormat, define the quality of materials, workmanship, and installation standards (e.g., "Type X gypsum board, 5/8" thick"), ensuring the design intent is met. Quantity (A) is detailed in schedules or drawings. Form (B) is shown in drawings, not specs. Relationship (D) refers to coordination, not specification content. Quality (C) is the primary focus of specs, distinguishing them from other contract documents.

Verified Answer from Official Source:C - quality

"Written specifications define the quality of materials and execution required for the project." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 4: Specifications)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ emphasizes specs as the tool to establish performance and aesthetic standards, complementing drawings’ spatial details.

Objectives:

Understand specification purposes (IDPX Objective 4.1).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of building codes and jurisdictional requirements. When designing a project, the applicable building code is determined by the location of the project, not the location of the design firm.

Option A (International Building Code):The International Building Code (IBC) is widely used in the United States, but the project is in Toronto, Canada. While the IBC may be referenced, the primary code in Canada is determined by the local jurisdiction.

Option B (National Building Code of Canada):The National Building Code of Canada (NBC) is the model code for Canada, but local jurisdictions (e.g., provinces, municipalities) adopt and amend it. The designer must comply with the specific code adopted by Toronto, not just the NBC.

Option C (The applicable building code in the firm’s local jurisdiction):The design firm is in Utah, but the building code in Utah (likely based on the IBC) does not apply to a project in Toronto. The project’s location determines the code, not the firm’s location.

Option D (The applicable building code in the project’s local jurisdiction):This is the correct choice. The project is in Toronto, so the design firm must comply with the building code and permit requirements of Toronto, Ontario, which adopts the Ontario Building Code (OBC), a localized version of the National Building Code of Canada, along with any municipal amendments. This ensures the design meets the legal requirements of the project’s jurisdiction.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on building codes and jurisdictional compliance.

“The designer must comply with the building code and permit requirements of the project’s local jurisdiction, regardless of the firm’s location, to ensure the design meets legal standards.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Codes and Standards Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide emphasizes that the project’s location determines the applicable building code. For a project in Toronto, the designer must follow the Ontario Building Code andany local amendments, making Option D the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand jurisdictional requirements for building codes (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Codes and Standards).

Apply code compliance to projects in different locations (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Professional Practice).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of the submittal process during contract administration. Submittals are documents or samples provided by the contractor to the designer for review, ensuring that the materials and products being used align with the project requirements.

Option A (Confirm the quantity of material to be ordered):The quantity of material is typically determined by the contractor based on the contract documents and is not the primary purpose of the submittal process. The designer may review quantities as part of the process, but this is secondary.

Option B (Alter product specifications prior to the final order):The submittal process is not intended for the designer to alter specifications; it is to verify that the proposed materials meet the existing specifications. Altering specifications would require a change order, not a submittal.

Option C (Check for conformance with the contract documents):This is the correct choice. The primary purpose of the submittal process is for the designer to review the contractor’s proposed materials, products, or shop drawings to ensure they conform to the contract documents (e.g., specifications, drawings). This ensures that the project is built as designed and meets all requirements.

Option D (Verify that the dimensions conform to the site conditions):While dimensions may be reviewed as part of shop drawings, verifying site conditions is typically the contractor’s responsibility during construction. The submittal process focuses on conformance with the design intent, not site verification.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on contract administration and the submittal process.

“The primary purpose of the submittal process is for the designer to check that the proposed materials and products conform to the contract documents, ensuring compliance with the design intent.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Contract Administration Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide clearly states that the submittal process is designed to ensure conformance with the contract documents, allowing the designer to verify that the contractor’s selections meet the project’s requirements. This makes Option C the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand the purpose of the submittal process in contract administration (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).

Apply review processes to ensure design compliance (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Construction Administration).

Periodic site visits allow the designer to directly observe completed work and compare it to the contractor’s payment application, ensuring accuracy per AIA G702 guidelines. A pricing breakdown (A) helps but lacks physical verification. Reviewing the schedule (C) predicts progress but doesn’t confirm it. Calling subcontractors (D) is inefficient and indirect. Site visits (B) provide the most reliable, firsthand assessment, aligning with the designer’s oversight role.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - Participate in periodic site visits to compare progress onsite to progress claimed in the payment application

"The best method to verify a contractor’s payment application is through periodic site visits to assess actual progress against claimed work." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Administration)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ stresses site visits as a core responsibility in construction administration, ensuring payments reflect completed work per contract terms.

Objectives:

Monitor construction progress (IDPX Objective 3.5).

Converting an office (Business, B) to a live-work space (Residential, R) involves a change of occupancy, requiring the designer to first confirm zoning ordinances with the local AHJ to ensure residential use is permitted. Site visits (A) and construction type (D) are subsequent steps after legal feasibility. Project drivers (C) define goals but follow zoning confirmation. Zoning (B) is the critical first step to avoid unfeasible design efforts.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - Confirm zoning ordinance

"For a change of occupancy, the designer must first confirm zoning ordinances to verify the proposed use is allowed by local regulations." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 1: Codes and Standards)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ stresses zoning as the initial check to ensure project viability, a foundational step in occupancy changes.

Objectives:

Apply zoning regulations to projects (IDPX Objective 1.11).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s ability to manage costs in a project with a tight budget, such as a corporate office with a limited tenant improvement allowance. The goal is to recommend the most effective cost-saving strategy while maintaining functionality.

Option A (Reuse the existing doors and millwork where possible):Reusing doors and millwork can save some costs, but these are relatively small expenses compared to larger systems like plumbing. Additionally, existing doors and millwork may not meet the new design requirements or code standards, limiting the savings.

Option B (Save as many existing nonstructural walls as possible):Saving nonstructural walls can reduce demolition and reconstruction costs, but the savings are moderate compared to other systems. Walls may also need to be reconfigured to meet the new layout, reducing the cost benefit.

Option C (Maintain the existing water closet and lavatory locations):This is the best choice because relocating plumbing fixtures like water closets and lavatories is one of the most expensive aspects of a renovation. It involves significant labor and material costs for new piping, fixtures, and potentially structural modifications (e.g., cutting into concrete slabs). Keeping these fixtures in their existing locations avoids these costs, maximizing savings within the tight improvement allowance.

Option D (Design an open-plan for each space without suspended ceilings):An open-plan layout without suspended ceilings can reduce costs by minimizing partitioning and ceiling work, but it may not be feasible for a corporate office that requires acoustical privacy and mechanical systems (e.g., HVAC, lighting) typically housed in a ceiling plenum. The savings are also less significant than avoiding plumbing relocation.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on cost management and tenant improvements.

“To save on construction costs in a tenant improvement project, the designer should prioritize maintaining existing plumbing locations, such as water closets and lavatories, as relocation is one of the most expensive aspects of a renovation.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Project Management Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide highlights that maintaining existing plumbing locations is a key cost-saving strategy in tenant improvements, as relocation involves significant expenses. This makes Option C the most effective recommendation for a project with a tight budget.

Objectives:

Understand cost-saving strategies in tenant improvements (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Management).

Apply design solutions to manage budget constraints (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Design Development).

Fire ratings for partitions between tenant spaces in a multi-tenant building are governed by the International Building Code (IBC), which the NCIDQ IDPX exam references for code compliance. The specific requirement depends on the occupancy types, the presence of a sprinkler system, and the number of occupants.

Occupancy Classification:A bank typically falls under Business (B) occupancy, while a restaurant serving more than 49 persons is classified as Assembly (A-2) occupancy. The adjacent insurance office is also a Business (B) occupancy.

Fire Separation Requirement:According to the IBC, in a non-sprinklered building, a change in occupancy from Business to Assembly requires a fire-rated separation between the new Assembly space and adjacent tenant spaces. Table 508.4 of the IBC specifies that a 1-hour fire-rated separation is required between A-2 (Assembly) and B (Business) occupancies when the building is not sprinklered.

Impact of Sprinkler System:The question specifies that the building is non-sprinklered. If the building were sprinklered, the fire rating might be reduced or eliminated, depending on the code allowances, but in this case, the 1-hour rating applies.

Number of Occupants:The restaurant serving more than 49 persons confirms its A-2 classification, as Assembly occupancies are defined by occupant loads greater than 49. This does not change the fire rating requirement but confirms the occupancy type.

Option A (0):A 0-hour rating would not comply with the IBC requirement for separation between A-2 and B occupancies in a non-sprinklered building.

Option B (1):A 1-hour fire-rated separation is the minimum required by the IBC for this scenario, making this the correct answer.

Option C (2):A 2-hour rating is not required unless the occupancies involved have a higher hazard classification (e.g., hazardous materials) or the building has specific structural requirements, which is not indicated here.

Option D (3):A 3-hour rating is typically reserved for more hazardous occupancies or fire walls, not for tenant separations in this context.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from the International Building Code (IBC), as referenced in NCIDQ IDPX study materials.

“Table 508.4 – Required Separation of Occupancies (hours): A-2 (Assembly) and B (Business) – 1 hour (non-sprinklered).” (International Building Code, 2018 Edition, Table 508.4)

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests knowledge of building codes, specifically the IBC, which requires a 1-hour fire-rated separation between A-2 and B occupancies in a non-sprinklered building. This ensures safety by containing potential fire spread between spaces with different occupancy risks.

Objectives:

Apply building codes to determine fire separation requirements (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Codes and Standards).

Understand occupancy classifications and their impact on fire ratings (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Building Regulations).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of FF&E (furniture, fixtures, and equipment) procurement processes, including the purpose of an order acknowledgement. An order acknowledgement is a document issued by a vendor after receiving a purchase order, confirming the details of the order.

Option A (Secure written agreement before proceeding with the work):This describes the purpose of a contract or purchase order, not an order acknowledgement. The order acknowledgement comes after the agreement is made, confirming the order details.

Option B (Allow review and correction before an order is manufactured):This is thecorrect choice. The primary function of an order acknowledgement is to confirm the details of the purchase order (e.g., quantity, product, finish, delivery date) and provide an opportunity for the designer to review and correct any discrepancies before the vendor begins manufacturing. This ensures that the order aligns with the designer’s intent and prevents costly errors.

Option C (Prescribe the processes for tracking invoices and accounts receivable):Tracking invoices and accounts receivable is part of financial management, not the purpose of an order acknowledgement. The acknowledgement focuses on order confirmation, not billing processes.

Option D (Establish the discount structure to be used for purchases related to a particular project):The discount structure is typically established in the initial agreement or purchase order, not the order acknowledgement. The acknowledgement confirms the order details, including any agreed-upon pricing, but does not establish the discount structure.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on FF&E procurement processes.

“The primary function of an order acknowledgement is to allow the designer to review and correct order details before manufacturing begins, ensuring accuracy and alignment with the purchase order.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, FF&E Procurement Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that an order acknowledgement serves as a final check before manufacturing, allowing the designer to verify and correct the order. This prevents errors and ensures the vendor produces the correct items, making Option B the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand the FF&E procurement process and documentation (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: FF&E).

Apply review processes to ensure order accuracy (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s knowledge of building systems and space requirements, particularly those related to ventilation and equipment needs. A louvered door has slats or openings that allow air circulation while maintaining privacy or security, and it is typically used in spaces requiring ventilation.

Option A (IT closet):This is the correct choice. An IT (Information Technology) closet houses equipment like servers, routers, and other electronics that generate heat. Proper ventilation is critical to prevent overheating, and a louvered door allows air circulation to dissipate heat while keeping the equipment secure. This is a common requirement for IT closets, especially if active cooling systems are not present.

Option B (Hotel room):A hotel room does not typically require a louvered door, as ventilation is provided by HVAC systems, windows, or exhaust fans in bathrooms. A louvered door would compromise privacy and noise control, which are priorities in a hotel room.

Option C (Executive office):An executive office prioritizes privacy and noise control, and ventilation is typically handled by the building’s HVAC system. A louvered door would be inappropriate in this context due to privacy concerns.

Option D (Dental exam room):A dental exam room requires privacy and infection control, and ventilation is usually provided by mechanical systems (e.g., exhaust fans). A louvered door would not be suitable, as it could allow sound transmission and compromise patient privacy.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on building systems and space requirements.

“Spaces like IT closets, which house heat-generating equipment, often require louvered doors to provide passive ventilation and prevent overheating.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Building Systems Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide highlights that IT closets often need louvered doors to ensure adequate ventilation for heat-generating equipment. This aligns with Option A, making it the most likely space to require a louvered door.

Objectives:

Understand ventilation requirements for specific spaces (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Building Systems).

Apply design solutions to meet equipment needs (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Design Development).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s knowledge of sustainable design and material safety, particularly regarding chemicals of concern in building products. Formaldehyde, PVC (polyvinyl chloride), and phthalates are chemicals often targeted in sustainable design due to their environmental and health impacts.

Option A (The Red List):This is the correct choice. The Red List, developed by the International Living Future Institute as part of the Living Building Challenge, identifies chemicals and materials that are harmful to human health and the environment and should be avoided in building projects. Formaldehyde (a known carcinogen), PVC (which can release toxins during production and disposal), and phthalates (endocrine disruptors often used in plastics) are all on the Red List due to their toxicity and environmental impact.

Option B (Class C finishes):Class C finishes refer to a fire classification for interior finishes based on flame spread and smoke development (e.g., per ASTM E84). This classification is unrelated to chemical composition or toxicity.

Option C (Hazardous building types):There is no standard category called “hazardous building types” in building codes or design standards. This option is incorrect and not a recognized term.

Option D (CAL 133 compliant products):CAL 133 (California Technical Bulletin 133) is a flammability standard for furniture, requiring resistance to open flame ignition. It focuses on fire safety, not the presence of harmful chemicals like formaldehyde, PVC, or phthalates.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on sustainable design and material health.

“The Red List includes chemicals such as formaldehyde, PVC, and phthalates, which are identified as harmful to human health and the environment and should be avoided in sustainable design.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Sustainable Design Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide confirms that formaldehyde, PVC, and phthalates are part of the Red List, a tool used in sustainable design to avoid toxic materials. This aligns with Option A, making it the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand the Red List and its role in sustainable design (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Sustainable Design).

Apply material health knowledge to select safe products (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Materials and Finishes).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s ability to manage construction challenges, such as material delays, while keeping the project on schedule and maintaining client involvement. The goal is to address the delay in floor tile availability without delaying occupancy.

Option A (Modify the specifications to an alternate flooring type that is in stock):While this might resolve the delay, changing the flooring type (e.g., from tile to carpet) could significantly alter the design intent and may not meet the client’s expectations. This option does not involve the client, which is a critical oversight.

Option B (Change the specifications to an in-stock tile and obtain the client’s agreement):This is the best course of action. Changing to an in-stock tile keeps the projecton schedule by avoiding the delay, and selecting another tile (rather than a different flooring type) minimizes the impact on the design intent. Obtaining the client’s agreement ensures transparency and maintains their involvement in the decision, aligning with professional best practices.

Option C (Notify the client and all subtrades that the anticipated schedule will be delayed):Accepting the delay without exploring alternatives is not the best approach, as it directly impacts occupancy and may lead to additional costs or client dissatisfaction.

Option D (Give an estimate of how far behind schedule the project is, with a new completion date):Providing an estimate of the delay is reactive and does not address the problem proactively. The designer should first explore solutions to avoid the delay, rather than simply reporting it.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on construction administration and problem-solving.

“When a specified material will delay the project, the designer should propose an in-stock alternative that aligns with the design intent and obtain the client’s agreement to keep the project on schedule.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Construction Administration Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide recommends proposing an in-stock alternative and obtaining client approval as the best way to address material delays. This approach balances the need to maintain the schedule with the designer’s responsibility to involve the client in changes, making Option B the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand how to address material delays during construction (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Construction Administration).

Apply problem-solving skills to maintain project schedules (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Management).

Product substitutions—requests to use alternatives to specified items—are governed by procedures outlined in the general requirements (CSI Division 01), which detail submission processes, approval criteria, and timelines. Bid forms (A) outline pricing and scope, not substitution rules. Material specifications (C) (Divisions 02-49) list specific products, not substitution protocols. General requirements (B) provide the administrative framework for substitutions, making it the correct location.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - general requirements

"Information on product substitutions is located in the general requirements (Division 01), specifying the process for approval during bidding and construction." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 4: Specifications)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ aligns with CSI MasterFormat, noting Division 01 as the section for procedural guidelines, including substitutions, to ensure consistency and control.

Objectives:

Understand specification structure (IDPX Objective 4.1).

Contract documents, per standard construction practice (e.g., AIA guidelines), form the legal agreement between the client (owner) and the contractor, defining the scope, schedule, and payment for the construction work. These include drawings, specifications, and addenda. The designer prepares these documents but is not a party to this contract; their agreement is separate with the client (A). Option C (designer and contractor) involves coordination, not a direct contract. Option D (contractor and suppliers) refers to subcontracts, not the primary contract documents. Thus, B is the correct legal relationship.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - the client and the contractor

"Contract documents establish the legal agreement between the owner and the contractor, outlining the terms of construction execution." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Documents)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ specifies that these documents bind the owner and contractor, with the designer acting as an agent to facilitate, not as a contractual party in this context.

Objectives:

Identify the purpose of contract documents (IDPX Objective 3.1).

Per IBC Section 303, a restaurant is classified as Assembly Group A-2, designated for spaces where people gather to eat and drink, with an occupant load typically over 50. Public P-3 (A) isn’t an IBC classification. Business Group B (B) applies to offices, not dining. Residential Group R (C) is for living spaces, not commercial dining. A-2 (D) fits restaurants due to their assembly use and safety requirements (e.g., egress, fire protection).

Verified Answer from Official Source:D - assembly: group A-2

"Restaurants are classified as Group A-2 (Assembly) under IBC for areas intended for food and drink consumption." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 1: Codes and Standards)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ references IBC, ensuring designers apply A-2 for restaurants to meet life safety and occupancy standards.

Objectives:

Determine occupancy classifications (IDPX Objective 1.2).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of pre-project planning and preparation. A project kickoff meeting with clients and stakeholders sets the stage for the project, and the design team must evaluate critical factors in advance to ensure a smooth start.

Option A (Cost analysis and value engineering):Cost analysis and value engineering are important but typically occur later in the design process, during schematic design or design development, not before the kickoff. These activities depend on a clearer understanding of the project scope, which is often defined at the kickoff.

Option B (Site availability and schedule impacts):This is the correct choice because evaluating site availability (e.g., access to the site, existing conditions) and schedule impacts (e.g., timelines, constraints) is critical before the kickoff. These factors affect the project’s feasibility, timeline, and coordination with stakeholders, ensuring that the team can address potential issues early and set realistic expectations.

Option C (System performance and subcontractor availability):System performance (e.g., HVAC, lighting) and subcontractor availability are more relevant during the design and construction phases, not before the kickoff. These details are too specific for the initial planning stage.

Correction of Typographical Error:

The original question lists only three options (A, B, C) but the NCIDQ format typically includes four options (A, B, C, D). The missing Option D does not affect the answer, as Option B is clearly the correct choice based on the given options. For completeness, a potential Option D might be something like “Client budget and programming needs,” which would also be relevant but less critical than site and schedule considerations before the kickoff.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on project planning and preparation.

“Prior to a project kickoff, the design team should evaluate site availability and schedule impacts to identify potential constraints and ensure alignment with project goals.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Project Planning Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide emphasizes the importance of evaluating site availability and schedule impacts before the kickoff to identify constraints and set realistic expectations with stakeholders. This preparation ensures a successful project start, making Option B the correct choice.

Objectives:

Understand the importance of pre-project planning (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Planning).

Apply preparation strategies to ensure project success (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Management).

An alternate in construction documents provides a separate price for an optional scope item (e.g., flooring replacement), allowing the client to decide later without delaying bidding. A mock-up (A) tests finishes, not pricing. An addendum (C) modifies documents pre-contract, not suitable during preparation. A change order (D) adjusts the contract post-execution, not applicable here. Alternate (B) is the standard method for pricing undecided elements during the CD phase.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - an alternate

"Alternates are used in construction documents to provide pricing for optional scope items, such as flooring, when the client has not finalized decisions." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Documents)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ notes alternates as a flexible tool for budgeting optional work, ensuring contractors bid on both base and additional scopes.

Objectives:

Prepare contract documents with flexibility (IDPX Objective 3.1).

Indoor air pollutants (e.g., VOCs, dust) can be reduced by improving ventilation, and operable windows allow fresh air to dilute and replace contaminated indoor air, per ASHRAE 62.1. Increasing humidity (A) may worsen mold, not pollutants. High-VOC materials (C) increase pollutants, the opposite of the goal. Decreasing temperature (D) affects comfort, not air quality directly. Operable windows (B) are a practical, effective solution for air quality improvement in many climates.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - install operable windows

"Installing operable windows reduces indoor air pollutants by providing natural ventilation to dilute contaminants." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Building Systems)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ aligns with ASHRAE standards, promoting operable windows as a sustainable method to enhance indoor air quality (IAQ) and occupant health.

Objectives:

Enhance indoor air quality (IDPX Objective 2.5).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s knowledge of fire safety requirements, specifically those outlined in the International Building Code (IBC), which is referenced for determining fire ratings of building components. A fire separation wall with a 2-hour rating requires doors that meet specific fire resistance standards.

IBC Requirements:According to the IBC (2018 Edition), Section 716.5, the fire rating of a door (fire door) in a fire-rated wall must be at least 3/4 of the wall’s rating, with a minimum rating of 45 minutes (3/4-hour) and a maximum requirement of 3 hours. For a 2-hour fire-rated wall:

3/4 of 2 hours = 1.5 hours (1 1/2 hours).

Therefore, the door must have a minimum fire rating of 1 1/2 hours.

Option A (3/4-hour):A 3/4-hour (45-minute) rating is the minimum for doors in 1-hour fire-rated walls, not 2-hour walls, so this is insufficient.

Option B (1-hour):A 1-hour rating is also insufficient, as it does not meet the 3/4 requirement for a 2-hour wall (1.5 hours).

Option C (1 1/2-hours):This meets the IBC requirement of 3/4 of the wall’s rating (1.5 hours) for a 2-hour fire separation wall, making it the correct minimum fire rating for the door.

Option D (2-hours):While a 2-hour rating exceeds the minimum requirement, it is not necessary, as the IBC allows a 1 1/2-hour rating for a 2-hour wall. A 2-hour rated door may be used but is not the minimum required.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from the International Building Code, as referenced in NCIDQ IDPX study materials.

“Fire door assemblies in fire walls or fire barriers with a fire-resistance rating greater than 1 hour but less than 4 hours shall have a minimum fire-protection rating of 1 1/2 hours.” (International Building Code, 2018 Edition, Section 716.5, Table 716.5)

The IBC specifies that for a 2-hour fire-rated wall, the minimum fire rating for a door is 1 1/2 hours, as outlined in Table 716.5. This ensures the door provides adequate fire protection while allowing for practical construction standards, making Option C the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand fire rating requirements for building components (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Codes and Standards).

Apply IBC guidelines to ensure fire safety in design (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Building Regulations).

Sound Transmission Class (STC) measures a wall’s ability to block sound. More mass (thicker gypsum), insulation, and decoupling improve STC. Option A (2x4 wood studs, double 5/8" gypsum each side, insulation) offers the highest mass and layers, typically achieving STC 50-55. Option B (2-1/2" metal studs, single 1/2" gypsum) has less mass and depth, around STC 35-40. Option C (3-1/2" metal studs, single 5/8" gypsum) improves slightly to STC 40-45, but lacks the double layers of A. Double gypsum significantly boosts STC, making A the best.

Verified Answer from Official Source:A - 2x4 studs at 16" [406 mm] OC, 2 layers of 5/8" [15 mm] gypsum board on each side, full batt insulation

"A wall with double layers of 5/8" gypsum board on each side of 2x4 studs with insulation achieves the highest STC rating among standard assemblies." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Materials and Finishes)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ notes that additional gypsum layers increasesound isolation, critical for noise control in interior spaces.

Objectives:

Evaluate materials for acoustic performance (IDPX Objective 2.5).

During the construction administration phase, the interior designer is responsible for ensuring that the work aligns with the contract documents, including specifications for materials and finishes. When a discrepancy is observed on-site, such as the wrong finish on a storefront system, immediate action is necessary to prevent further errors and potential rework, which could delay the project or increase costs.

Option A (Report the discrepancy in a memo to the contractor and client):While documenting the issue is important, a memo is a slower form of communication and does not address the immediate need to stop incorrect work. This option delays resolution and risks further installation of the wrong finish.

Option B (Reach out to the glazing supplier to find out which finish was ordered):Contacting the supplier might help clarify the error, but it does not address the immediate issue of incorrect installation. This action is secondary to stopping the work and notifying the contractor.

Option C (Explain the issue at the next owner, architect, contractor (OAC) meeting):Waiting until the next OAC meeting delays resolution, allowing more incorrect work to be completed. This option is not proactive and risks additional costs and delays.

Option D (Tell the subcontractor to stop their work and explain the issue to the contractor):This is the most appropriate action because it immediately halts the incorrect installation, preventing further errors. Notifying the contractor ensures that the issue is addressed through the proper chain of command, as the contractor is responsible for managing subcontractors. The designer should follow up with written documentation (e.g., a field report or RFI) to formalize the communication, but the first step is to stop the work and inform the contractor.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on construction administration and field observation protocols.

“When a discrepancy is observed during a site visit, the designer should immediately notify the contractor and, if necessary, instruct the subcontractor to stop work to prevent further errors. This should be followed by written documentation.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Construction Administration Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide emphasizes the designer’s role in field observation, which includes taking immediate action to address discrepancies during construction. Stopping the subcontractor’s work and notifying the contractor ensures that the issue is addressed promptly, aligning with best practices in construction administration. Option D is the most proactive and effective response.

Objectives:

Understand the designer’s role in construction administration and field observation (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).

Apply problem-solving skills to address on-site discrepancies (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Construction Observation).

Commissioning is a systematic process to verify that building systems (e.g., HVAC) perform as designed, per ASHRAE guidelines, identifying issues like poor heating before occupancy. Additional diffusers (B) address symptoms, not root causes. A punch list (C) corrects construction defects, not system performance. An underfloor system (D) is a design choice, not a verification process. Commissioning (A) ensures proper HVAC operation, preventing the reported issue.

Verified Answer from Official Source:A - commissioning

"Commissioning verifies that HVAC systems perform per design intent, preventing issues like inadequate heating identified post-occupancy." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Building Systems)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ emphasizes commissioning as a quality assurance step, ensuring systems meet specifications and occupant needs.

Objectives:

Verify building system performance (IDPX Objective 2.9).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s knowledge of fire protection systems, specifically the distinction between active and passive systems. Active fire protection systems actively combat a fire, while passive systems provide barriers or safe areas without direct intervention.

Option A (Area of refuge):An area of refuge is a passive fire protection measure, providing a safe space for occupants (e.g., those with mobility impairments) to wait for rescue during a fire. It does not actively combat the fire.

Option B (Means of egress):The means of egress (e.g., exits, corridors) is a passive fire protection measure that facilitates safe evacuation. It does not actively fight the fire but ensures safe escape routes.

Option C (Protected stairwells):Protected stairwells are part of passive fire protection, asthey are fire-rated enclosures that provide a safe path for evacuation. They do not actively suppress a fire.

Option D (Pre-action sprinklers):This is the correct choice. Pre-action sprinklers are part of an active fire protection system. They are a type of sprinkler system that requires two triggers to activate (e.g., a detection system and a sprinkler head opening), typically used in areas with sensitive equipment (e.g., data centers). As an active system, they directly combat the fire by releasing water to suppress it.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on fire protection systems, referencing NFPA standards.

“Active fire protection systems, such as pre-action sprinklers, directly combat fires by suppressing them, while passive systems like protected stairwells provide barriers or safe areas.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Building Systems Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide classifies pre-action sprinklers as an active fire protection system because they actively suppress fires. This distinguishes them from passive measures like areas of refuge or protected stairwells, making Option D the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand the difference between active and passive fire protection (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Building Systems).

Apply fire safety knowledge to identify system types (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Codes and Standards).

Radiant heating systems use pipes or tubing embedded in floors, walls, or ceilings to circulate hot water or electric elements, transferring heat directly to surfaces and occupants via radiation. Electric (A) refers to a power source, not a system type, and could include radiant but isn’t specific. Hot-water (C) describes the medium, not the delivery method, and could apply to radiators, not embedded systems. Forced-air (D) uses ducts and air circulation, not embedded pipes. Radiant (B) precisely matches the description of embedded tubing for heating, common in modern design for efficiency and comfort.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - radiant

"Radiant heating systems utilize pipes or tubing embedded within floors, walls, or ceilings to provide heat through radiation." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Building Systems)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ identifies radiant systems as a distinct mechanical heating method, valued for even heat distribution and energy efficiency, often integrated into interior surfaces.

Objectives:

Understand mechanical system types (IDPX Objective 2.9).

Acoustical privacy in a conference room requires minimizing sound transmission between spaces, particularly through walls, ceilings, and other structural elements. According to NCIDQ IDPX principles, the primary method to achieve this is by ensuring that sound cannot easily travel through gaps or flanking paths in the construction assembly.

Option A (Specify interior partitions to the underside of the deck above, add fiberglass insulation to partitions):This option is the most effective because extending partitions to the underside of the deck above eliminates gaps at the top of the partition, which are common flanking paths for sound. Adding fiberglass insulation within the partition further absorbs sound, increasing the wall’s Sound Transmission Class (STC) rating. This method ensures a continuous barrier against airborne sound transmission, which is critical for acoustical privacy in a conference room.

Option B (Specify an acoustical ceiling tile, insulate and caulk joints between partition and ceiling and at electrical receptacles):While acoustical ceiling tiles can absorb sound within the room, they do not significantly reduce sound transmission between rooms unless the partition extends above the ceiling to the deck. Insulating and caulking joints helps, but this method is less effective than Option A because sound can still travel through the ceiling plenum.

Option C (Specify interior partitions to 6" [152 mm] above an acoustical ceiling, specify batt insulation over the top, 24" [610 mm] each side):This option is less effective because the partition does not extend to the deck above, leaving a gap in the plenum where sound can travel. The batt insulation over the top helps, but it does not provide a complete barrier to sound transmission.

Option D (Specify metal stud partitions to the underside of the deck above, 5/8" [16 mm] fire-rated gypsum board covered with Type II vinyl wallcovering):While extending the partition to the deck above is good, the addition of Type II vinyl wallcovering does little to improve acoustical privacy, as it primarily serves an aesthetic and durability purpose rather than sound absorption or transmission reduction. Fiberglass insulation (as in Option A) would be more effective for sound control.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials, specifically related to acoustical design principles for interior spaces.

“Partitions should extend to the underside of the structural deck above to prevent sound transmission through the plenum. Adding insulation within the partition cavity enhances the STCrating.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Acoustical Design Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide emphasizes that for effective acoustical privacy, partitions must extend to the structural deck to block sound transmission paths. Fiberglass insulation within the partition cavity absorbs sound, reducing transmission between spaces, which aligns with Option A.

Objectives:

Understand the principles of acoustical design and sound transmission control (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Acoustical Design).

Apply construction detailing to achieve acoustical performance in interior spaces (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Detailing and Construction).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of professional practice, specifically the essential elements that should be included in a design contract to define the project’s physical parameters. The contract sets the foundation for the project scope and ensures clarity between the designer and client.

Option A (Property address, usable square footage [m²], and projected use):This is the correct choice. The property address identifies the project’s location, the usable square footage defines the physical size of the space the designer will work with, and the projected use (e.g., office, retail) outlines the intended function. These elements collectively provide a clear understanding of the project’s physical parameters, which are critical for establishingthe scope of work in the contract.

Option B (Room name, client, and occupant load):Room names are too detailed for the contract’s overview of physical parameters, the client is part of the contractual parties (not a physical parameter), and occupant load is a code-related detail rather than a core physical descriptor of the project.

Option C (Room measurements, drawing references, and furniture requirements):Room measurements and furniture requirements are specific details developed during design phases, not core contract information. Drawing references are also too detailed for the contract’s initial scope definition.

Option D (Occupant load, circulation ratio, and building classification):These are technical details related to code compliance and design calculations, not core physical parameters for the contract. They are determined later in the design process, not at the contract stage.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on professional practice and contract preparation.

“A design contract should include core physical parameters such as the property address, usable square footage, and projected use to clearly define the project scope and ensure mutual understanding.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Professional Practice Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that the property address, usable square footage, and projected use are essential elements to include in a design contract to define the project’s physical parameters. These ensure clarity and alignment between the designer and client, making Option A the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand the elements required in a design contract (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Professional Practice).

Apply contract preparation to define project scope (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).

The installer (e.g., millwork contractor) is responsible for field verifying existing conditions to produce shop drawings for new countertops, per CSI and AIA standards. They measure the existing millwork on-site to ensure the custom countertops fit precisely, as they execute the work. The owner (A) funds but doesn’t verify. The designer (C) provides design intent but typically doesn’t field measure for shop drawings. The installer (B) bridges design and fabrication with accurate site data.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - installer

"The installer is responsible for field verifying existing conditions to create shop drawings for custom elements like countertops." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Administration)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ assigns this task to the installer, ensuring shop drawings reflect as-built conditions for seamless integration.

Objectives:

Coordinate fabrication responsibilities (IDPX Objective 3.13).

Contractual capacity refers to the legal authority of a party to enter a binding agreement. If the office manager lacked authorization from the owner to sign the contract, the agreement may be voidable due to this capacity issue. Mutual assent (A) involves agreement between parties, not authority to sign. Breach of contract (B) occurs after a valid contract is violated, not applicable here. Designer responsible disclaimer (D) is unrelated to signing authority. The core issue is whether the office manager had the legal power to commit the owner, making C correct.

Verified Answer from Official Source:C - contractual capacity

"Contractual capacity ensures that the signing party has the legal authority to bind the entity to the agreement; lack of capacity can invalidate a contract." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 5: Professional Practice)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ stresses that designers must verify the signer’s authority to avoid unenforceable contracts, a key aspect of professional liability and practice.

Objectives:

Understand legal principles of contracts (IDPX Objective 5.3).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of professional practice, including the structure of contracts like a letter of agreement. A letter of agreement outlines the terms of the designer’s engagement with the client, and its content should be organized logically.

Option A (Legal obligations):Legal obligations (e.g., liability, dispute resolution) are important but are typically addressed later in the agreement, after the primary terms like scope and fees are defined.

Option B (Scope of services):This is the correct choice because the scope of services defines what the designer will do for the client, setting the foundation for the entire agreement. It should be addressed first to ensure both parties have a clear understanding of the project’s extent, deliverables, and responsibilities before discussing fees, legal terms, or other details.

Option C (Amount of retainer):The retainer amount is part of the fee structure, which comes after the scope of services is defined. The scope determines the fee, so it must be addressed first.

Option D (General bid conditions):General bid conditions are relevant for construction contracts, not a designer’s letter of agreement with a client. This option is not applicable in this context.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on professional practice and contract drafting.

“In a letter of agreement, the scope of services should be addressed first to clearly define the designer’s responsibilities and set the foundation for the remaining terms, such as fees and legal obligations.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Professional Practice Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide emphasizes that the scope of services is the first and most critical element in a letter of agreement, as it establishes the project’s parameters and informs all subsequent terms. Addressing the scope first ensures clarity and alignment with the client, making Option B the correct choice.

Objectives:

Understand the structure of a letter of agreement (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Professional Practice).

Apply contract drafting principles to ensure clarity (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of structural concepts, particularly the types of loads that affect building design. Loads are forces that a building must withstand, and they are classified based on their nature and behavior.

Option A (Live loads):Live loads are temporary or movable loads, such as people, furniture, or snow, that can change over time. While they can vary, they are not necessarily dynamic in the sense of rapid application (e.g., earthquakes). Earthquakes and wind loads are not classified as live loads.

Option B (Dead loads):Dead loads are static, permanent loads, such as the weight of the building structure itself (e.g., walls, floors, roof). Earthquakes and wind loads are not permanent; they are transient forces.

Option C (Static loads):Static loads are constant and do not change over time (e.g., the weight of a wall). Earthquakes and wind loads are not static, as they involve rapid, changing forces.

Option D (Dynamic loads):This is the correct choice. Dynamic loads are forces that vary with time and are applied suddenly or cyclically, such as earthquakes (seismic forces) and wind loads (gusts). These loads cause vibrations and require special consideration in structural design to ensure the building can withstand them.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on structural concepts and load types.

“Dynamic loads, such as earthquakes and wind loads, are forces that vary with time and are applied suddenly or cyclically, requiring specific structural design considerations.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Building Systems Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide defines dynamic loads as forces that change over time, such as earthquakes and wind loads. This classification aligns with Option D, making it the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand the types of loads in building design (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Building Systems).

Apply structural knowledge to coordinate with engineers (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Coordination).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of acoustical design, specifically how to mitigate impact noise, which is caused by physical contact (e.g., high heels on a hard floor) and transmitted through the structure. Impact noise is best addressed by isolating the vibration at the source, rather than relying solely on sound absorption.

Option A (Higher NRC in the ceiling material):NRC (Noise Reduction Coefficient) measures a material’s ability to absorb airborne sound within a space. While a higher NRC ceiling material can reduce reverberation, it does not effectively mitigate impact noise, which is transmitted through the floor structure to the space below.

Option B (Framed-in upholstered wall panel system):Upholstered wall panels also absorb airborne sound but have minimal effect on impact noise, as they do not address the vibration at the floor level where the noise originates.

Option C (Resilient underlayment in the floor assembly):This is the most effective method. Resilient underlayment (e.g., rubber or cork) is a layer installed beneath the hard floor surface that absorbs and isolates vibrations caused by impact, such as footsteps from high heels. This reduces the transmission of impact noise to the structure and the space below, making it the best solution.

Option D (Blanket insulation between joists and trusses):Blanket insulation (e.g., fiberglass batt) between joists helps reduce airborne sound transmission but has little effect on impact noise, as it does not isolate the vibration at the floor surface.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on acoustical design and noise control.

“To mitigate impact noise from hard floor surfaces, a resilient underlayment should be incorporated into the floor assembly to absorb vibrations and reduce transmission to the structure below.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Acoustical Design Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that resilient underlayment is the most effective method for mitigating impact noise, as it directly addresses the source of the vibration. This aligns with Option C, making it the best construction method for reducing noise from high heels on a hard floor.

Objectives:

Understand methods for controlling impact noise in interior spaces (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Acoustical Design).

Apply construction detailing to achieve acoustical performance (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Detailing and Construction).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s knowledge of accessibility standards, specifically the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) guidelines, which are referenced for designing accessible spaces like public restrooms. The clear floor space at an accessible lavatory ensures that individuals using wheelchairs can approach and use the fixture.

ADA Requirements:According to the 2010 ADA Standards for Accessible Design, Section 606.2, an accessible lavatory requires a clear floor space of 30 inches wide by 48 inches deep (762 mm x 1219 mm) to allow for a forward approach. This space must be free of obstructions, ensuring that a wheelchair user can maneuver and position themselves at the lavatory.

Option A (24" x 42" [610 mm x 1067 mm]):This space is too small for an accessible lavatory. The minimum width of 30 inches is required to accommodate a wheelchair, and 42 inches is insufficient for the depth needed for a forward approach.

Option B (24" x 48" [610 mm x 1219 mm]):While the depth of 48 inches meets the requirement, the width of 24 inches is too narrow for a wheelchair, which typically requires at least 30 inches of clearance.

Option C (30" x 36" [762 mm x 914 mm]):The width of 30 inches is correct, but the depth of 36 inches is insufficient for a forward approach to a lavatory, which requires 48 inches to allow for wheelchair maneuverability.

Option D (30" x 48" [762 mm x 1219 mm]):This matches the ADA requirement of 30 inches wide by 48 inches deep for a forward approach to an accessible lavatory, making it the correct choice.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from the 2010 ADA Standards for Accessible Design, as referenced in NCIDQ IDPX study materials.

“A clear floor space complying with Section 305, positioned for a forward approach, shall be provided at lavatories. The clear floor space shall be 30 inches (760 mm) minimum by 48 inches (1220 mm) minimum.” (2010 ADA Standards for Accessible Design, Section 606.2)

The 2010 ADA Standards specify that an accessible lavatory requires a clear floor space of 30 inches by 48 inches for a forward approach, ensuring that individuals using wheelchairs can access the fixture. Option D matches this requirement exactly, making it the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand accessibility requirements for public restrooms (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Codes and Standards).

Apply ADA guidelines to ensure inclusive design (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Building Regulations).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of project closeout procedures, including the documentation of deficiencies during a final walk-through. A final walk-through is conducted to identify any incomplete or incorrect work before the project is considered substantially complete.

Option A (RFI):A Request for Information (RFI) is used during construction to seek clarification or additional information from the designer or other parties. It is not the appropriate tool for documenting deficiencies at the end of a project.

Option B (Change order):A change order is a formal modification to the constructioncontract, typically used to address changes in scope, cost, or schedule during construction. The light fixture not being on a dimmer is a deficiency (an error in execution), not a change in scope, so a change order is not appropriate.

Option C (Punch (deficiency) list):This is the correct choice. A punch list (also called a deficiency list) is a document created during the final walk-through to record any items that are incomplete, incorrect, or not in accordance with the contract documents. The light fixture not being on a dimmer as specified is a deficiency, and it should be noted on the punch list for the contractor to correct before final completion.

Correction of Typographical Error:

The original question lists only three options (A, B, C), but the NCIDQ format typically includes four options (A, B, C, D). The missing Option D does not affect the answer, as Option C is clearly the correct choice based on the given options. For completeness, a potential Option D might be something like “Construction schedule,” which would be incorrect, as the schedule is not a tool for documenting deficiencies.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on project closeout and punch list procedures.

“During a final walk-through, any deficiencies, such as items not installed as specified, should be documented on the punch (deficiency) list for the contractor to address before final completion.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Project Closeout Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that a punch list is the appropriate tool for documenting deficiencies during a final walk-through. The light fixture issue is a deficiency, and recording it on the punch list ensures it will be corrected, making Option C the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand the purpose of a punch list in project closeout (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Closeout).

Apply documentation processes to address construction deficiencies (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Construction Administration).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s knowledge of tools and systems that facilitate coordination in large, collaborative projects. A joint venture with an engineering firm for a university project requires a system that integrates and coordinates information across disciplines.

Option A (Facility condition index (FCI)):The FCI is a metric used to assess the condition of a facility’s physical assets, often for maintenance planning. It is not a drawing system and does not facilitate coordination of project information.

Option B (Building information modeling (BIM)):BIM is a digital drawing and modeling system that integrates architectural, structural, mechanical, and other design information into a single model. It allows all project team members (e.g., designers, engineers) to collaborate, share data, and coordinate their work in real-time, making it the best choice for a joint venture project.

Option C (Project life cycle management (PLM)):PLM is a process for managing a product’s lifecycle, typically used in manufacturing, not a drawing system for coordinating project information in design and construction.

Option D (Virtual design and construction project manager (VDC)):VDC refers to a methodology or role that uses digital tools (often including BIM) to manage construction projects. It is not a drawing system itself, so it is less directly applicable than BIM.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on project coordination and technology in design.

“Building Information Modeling (BIM) is a collaborative tool that integrates design and construction information, enabling coordination across disciplines in large projects.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Project Coordination Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide highlights BIM as the most effective system for coordinating project information in collaborative projects. BIM’s ability to integrate data from multiple disciplines makes it ideal for a joint venture with an engineering firm, ensuring that all parties work from a unified model. Option B is the correct choice.

Objectives:

Understand the role of technology in project coordination (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Coordination).

Apply collaborative tools to manage interdisciplinary projects (NCIDQ IDPX Objective:Contract Administration).

A payment bond, required under AIA contracts (e.g., A201), guarantees that subcontractors and suppliers are paid by the contractor or surety, protecting them if the contractor defaults. A mechanic’s lien (B) is a legal claim filed post-default, not a guarantee. A performance bond (C) ensures project completion, not payment. Builder’s risk insurance (D) covers property damage, not payment disputes. Payment bond (A) directly addresses subcontractor payment security.

Verified Answer from Official Source:A - payment bond

"A payment bond ensures subcontractors are paid if the contractor defaults, providing financial protection during construction." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Administration)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ aligns with AIA standards, noting payment bonds as a critical safeguard for subcontractors in construction contracts.

Objectives:

Understand construction payment mechanisms (IDPX Objective 3.15).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s knowledge of fire separation requirements in mixed-occupancy buildings, as outlined in the International Building Code (IBC). Table 508.4, provided in the image, specifies the required fire separation (in hours) between different occupancy types in buildings with and without sprinkler systems. The question asks for two functions that are allowed with a one-hour fire separation in a fully-sprinklered building, meaning we will use the “S” (sprinklered) values from the table.

Step 1: Identify the Occupancy Classifications for Each Function:

Bank:A bank is classified as a Business occupancy (B) per the IBC, as it involves office and professional activities.

Theater:A theater is classified as an Assembly occupancy (A-1) per the IBC, as it is a space for the viewing of performing arts with fixed seating.

Car wash:A car wash is classified as a Storage occupancy (S-2) per the IBC, as itinvolves low-hazard storage or service activities (e.g., motor vehicle-related).

Casino gaming floor:A casino gaming floor is classified as an Assembly occupancy (A-2) per the IBC, as it is a space for gathering for entertainment or consumption (e.g., gambling).

Bowling alley:A bowling alley is also classified as an Assembly occupancy (A-3) per the IBC, as it is a space for recreation or amusement without theatrical performances.

Step 2: Review Table 508.4 for Fire Separation Requirements in a Sprinklered Building:The table provides the required fire separation in hours for various occupancy pairs. Since the building is fully sprinklered, we use the “S” values (sprinklered). We need to find pairs that require a one-hour fire separation.

Option A (Bank and Theater):

Bank = B (Business).

Theater = A-1 (Assembly).

From Table 508.4, for B and A-1 (under A, E column):

S = 1 (one-hour separation required).

This matches the requirement of a one-hour fire separation, so this pair is allowed.

Option B (Car wash and Bank):

Car wash = S-2 (Storage).

Bank = B (Business).

From Table 508.4, for B and S-2 (under F-2, S-2, U column):

S = N (no separation required).

This does not match the requirement of a one-hour fire separation, as no separation is needed.

Option C (Theater and Casino gaming floor):

Theater = A-1 (Assembly).

Casino gaming floor = A-2 (Assembly).

From Table 508.4, for A-1 and A-2 (both under A, E column, so we look at A, E with itself):

S = N (no separation required).

This does not match the requirement of a one-hour fire separation, as no separation is needed between A-1 and A-2 in a sprinklered building.

Option D (Casino gaming floor and Bowling alley):

Casino gaming floor = A-2 (Assembly).

Bowling alley = A-3 (Assembly).

From Table 508.4, for A-2 and A-3 (both under A, E column, so we look at A, E with itself):

S = N (no separation required).

This does not match the requirement of a one-hour fire separation, as no separation is needed between A-2 and A-3 in a sprinklered building.

Step 3: Determine the Correct Pair:

Option A (Bank and Theater) requires a one-hour fire separation in a sprinklered building, which matches the question’s criteria.

Options B, C, and D all result in no separation (N) required, which does not meet the one-hour fire separation requirement.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from the International Building Code (IBC), as provided in the image (Table 508.4), and referenced in NCIDQ IDPX study materials.

“Table 508.4 – Required Separation of Occupancies (hours): For A-1 (Assembly) and B (Business)in a sprinklered building (S), the required separation is 1 hour.” (International Building Code, 2018 Edition, Table 508.4)

Table 508.4 from the IBC shows that in a fully-sprinklered building, a one-hour fire separation is required between A-1 (Assembly, e.g., theater) and B (Business, e.g., bank). The other pairs (B and S-2, A-1 and A-2, A-2 and A-3) require no separation (N) in a sprinklered building, making Option A the only pair that matches the one-hour fire separation requirement.

Objectives:

Apply building codes to determine fire separation requirements (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Codes and Standards).

Understand occupancy classifications and their impact on fire ratings (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Building Regulations).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of the purpose of shop drawings in the construction process. Shop drawings are detailed drawings prepared by the contractor, subcontractor, or fabricator to show how specific elements (e.g., millwork, systems furniture) will be manufactured and installed.

Option A (Analyze the fabrication method):While shop drawings may include information about fabrication methods, the primary purpose is not for the designer to analyze how the item is made but to verify that the fabrication aligns with the design intent.

Option B (Approve completeness of the details):Shop drawings do provide detailed information, but the designer’s role is not to approve their completeness in terms of fabrication details. Instead, the designer checks whether the drawings meet the project’s requirements, not whether the fabricator’s details are complete.

Option C (Check conformance with the design intent):This is the correct choice. The primary purpose of shop drawings is for the designer to review them and ensure that the proposed fabrication and installation conform to the design intent as specified in the contract documents (e.g., drawings, specifications). This ensures that the final product matches thedesigner’s vision and meets project requirements.

Correction of Typographical Error:

The original question lists only three options (A, B, C), but the NCIDQ format typically includes four options (A, B, C, D). The missing Option D does not affect the answer, as Option C is clearly the correct choice based on the given options. For completeness, a potential Option D might be something like “Verify the quantity of materials needed,” which would be incorrect, as that is not the primary purpose of shop drawings.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on construction administration and shop drawing review.

“The primary purpose of shop drawings is to allow the designer to check conformance with the design intent, ensuring that the fabricated elements align with the contract documents.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Construction Administration Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that the main role of shop drawings is to ensure that the fabrication and installation align with the designer’s intent. This review process helps catch discrepancies before construction, making Option C the correct answer.

Objectives:

Understand the purpose of shop drawings in construction (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Construction Administration).

Apply review processes to ensure design compliance (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).

The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s ability to select appropriate fee structures based on the project scope and complexity. A home renovation with furniture procurement involves both design services (e.g., space planning, detailing) and procurement services (e.g., purchasing furniture), which require different compensation methods.

Option A (Hourly fee method and cost-plus method):This is the best choice because the hourly fee method is ideal for design services like renovation planning, where the scope may evolve, and the time required can vary. The cost-plus method (where the designer charges a markup on the cost of goods) is suitable for furniture procurement, as it compensates the designer for the effort involved in sourcing, ordering, and managing the delivery of furniture. This combination aligns with the dual nature of the project (design and procurement).

Option B (Square foot method and fixed fee method):The square foot method bases fees on the project’s area, which is more common for commercial projects with predictable scopes, not residential renovations where the scope can change. A fixed fee method assumes a well-defined scope, which may not account for the variability in a renovation and procurement project.

Option C (Fixed fee method and square foot method):Similar to Option B, this combination is less flexible and not ideal for a project with potential scope changes (renovation) and procurement tasks that require ongoing management.

Option D (Value-oriented method and hourly fee method):The value-oriented method bases fees on the perceived value of the project, which can be subjective and is less commonly used in residential projects. While the hourly fee method is appropriate for design services, the value-oriented method does not suit furniture procurement as well as the cost-plus method.

Verified Answer from Official Source:

The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on professional practice and fee structures.

“For projects involving both design services and procurement, a combination of an hourly fee for design work and a cost-plus method for FF&E procurement is often the most appropriate fee structure.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Professional Practice Section)

The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide recommends using an hourly fee for design services, which allows flexibility for the variable scope of a home renovation, and a cost-plus method for procurement,which compensates the designer for the time and effort involved in furniture purchasing. This makes Option A the best choice for this project.

Objectives:

Understand appropriate fee structures for different project types (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Professional Practice).

Apply business practices to manage design and procurement services (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Management).

Accessibility analysis under ADA Standards (Section 206, 216, 407) focuses on key elements ensuring equitable use: entrances (accessible entry points), restroom facilities (compliant fixtures and clearances), and vertical transportation (elevators or lifts for multi-story access). Option A includes exit signs (life safety, not accessibility-specific) and misses restrooms and vertical movement. Option B omits entrances, critical for access. Option D includes fire protection (unrelated to accessibility) and misses restrooms. Option C covers the most critical ADA components for a two-story building, ensuring comprehensive compliance.

Verified Answer from Official Source:C - entrances, restroom (washroom) facilities, and vertical transportation

"Critical accessibility items in a multi-story building include entrances, restroom facilities, and vertical transportation to ensure compliance with ADA standards." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 1: Codes and Standards)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ aligns with ADA requirements, emphasizing these elements as essential for accessibility in commercial spaces, especially multi-level structures.

Objectives:

Apply accessibility standards to existing conditions (IDPX Objective 1.6).

Per AIA A201, when a contractor identifies a conflict between drawings and specs, the first step is to notify the designer (architect or interior designer) via a Request for Information (RFI) to clarify intent, as the designer authored the documents. Issuing a change order (A) requires prior resolution. Interpreting (B) risks errors without designer input. Notifying the owner (C) bypasses the designer, delaying resolution. Notifying the designer (D) initiates the proper clarification process.

Verified Answer from Official Source:D - notify the designer of the discrepancy

"The contractor’s first step upon discovering a conflict between drawings and specifications is to notify the designer for clarification." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Administration)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ aligns with AIA protocols, ensuring designers resolve discrepancies to maintain design integrity and contract compliance.

Objectives:

Manage construction phase conflicts (IDPX Objective 3.5).

Per IBC Section 1006.2.1, a business occupancy (Group B) with one exit is limited to 50 occupants,based on Table 1006.2.1, assuming a sprinklered building and 100 sf/person (gross). Above 50, a second exit is required for life safety. Option A (49) is a common assembly limit, not business. Options C (69) and D (70) exceed the code maximum. 50 (B) is the precise threshold for one-exit business spaces.

Verified Answer from Official Source:B - 50

"The maximum occupant load for a business occupancy with one exit is 50 per IBC Table 1006.2.1." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 1: Codes and Standards)

Explanation from Official Source:The NCIDQ references IBC to ensure designers limit occupant loads for safe egress in single-exit scenarios, critical for business settings.

Objectives:

Calculate occupant loads (IDPX Objective 1.2).