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H12-811_V1.0 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

The TCP protocol uses the three-way handshake mechanism to establish and disable connections. Therefore, TCP supports reliable data transmission.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 5

Fit APs can provide wireless services independently of an AC.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 6

Which of the following is not a type of OSPF LSA?

Options:

A.

LSA

B.

LSU

C.

LSR

D.

LSACK

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Questions 7

RSTP uses the proposal/agreement mechanism to shorten the time that an upstream port waits before transitioning to the Forwarding state, but no temporary loop occurs. Why?

Options:

A.

RSTP introduces the edge port role.

B.

RSTP accelerates port role election.

C.

RSTP uses a synchronization mechanism to prevent temporary loops.

D.

RSTP shortens the time taken by port status transition (Forward Delay).

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Questions 8

SDN requires the control and forwarding planes to be separated.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 9

UDP does not guarantee data transmission reliability and does not provide packet sorting and traffic control functions. It is suitable for the traffic that has low requirements for data transmission reliability, but high requirements for the transmission speed and delay.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 10

The rules in an ACL may overlap. If packets match the rules with loose conditions, the later ACL rules are not processed. In this case, packets cannot match the rules with strict conditions. Therefore, the rules with strict conditions must be arranged in front lines and those with loose conditions must be arranged towards the end.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 11

On the network shown in the figure, router A adopts link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, and G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 are added to link aggregation group (LAG) 1. Which of the following statements is false about Eth-Trunk 1 on router A?

Options:

A.

If both G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 on router B are disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.

B.

If only G0/0/2 on router B is disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.

C.

If only G0/0/1 on router B is disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.

D.

If both G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 on router B are disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Down.

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Questions 12

On Huawei routers, which of the following is the default preference of static routing?

Options:

A.

0

B.

100

C.

60

D.

120

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Questions 13

Wi-Fi 6 is also known as the IEEE 802.11ax standard.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 14

Network Address and Port Translation (NAPT) allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to the same public IP address through different port numbers. Which of the following statements about port numbers in NAPT is true?

Options:

A.

Only the port number range needs to be configured.

B.

The mappings between port numbers and private IP addresses must be manually configured.

C.

An ACL is required to allocate port numbers.

D.

No port number needs to be configured.

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Questions 15

Which of the following information is displayed when an entered command is incomplete on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP)?

Options:

A.

Error: Wrong parameter found at 'A' position

B.

Error: Incomplete command found at 'A' position

C.

Error: Too many parameters found at 'A' position

D.

Error: Ambiguous command found at 'A' position

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Questions 16

When the ACL in the following figure is configured on a Telnet server, only the device with an IP address of 172.16.105.2 can remotely log in to the Telnet server.

bash

Copy code

acl number 2000

rule 5 permit source 172.16.105.2 0

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 17

According to OSI reference model, which layer is responsible for end-to-end error checking and flow control?

Options:

A.

Network layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Data link layer

D.

Transport layer

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Questions 18

A routing entry contains multiple fields. Which of the following statements about these fields is false?

Options:

A.

Pre: indicates the preference value of a routing protocol.

B.

NextHop: indicates the address of the local interface corresponding to a route.

C.

Proto: indicates the source of a route.

D.

Destination/Mask: indicates the address and mask length of the destination network or host.

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Questions 19

The router ID of the OSPF process takes effect immediately after being changed.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 20

How many bytes are there in a basic IPv6 header?

Options:

A.

40

B.

48

C.

32

D.

64

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Questions 21

Which of the following port states are included in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?

Options:

A.

Discarding

B.

Forwarding

C.

Learning

D.

Listening

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Questions 22

Which of the following cannot be the length of an IPv4 packet header?

Options:

A.

64B

B.

20B

C.

60B

D.

32B

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Questions 23

Which is a valid EUI-64 address?

Options:

A.

00E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC

B.

02E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC

C.

02E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC

D.

00E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC

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Questions 24

Which of the following statements are true about the dynamic MAC address table?

Options:

A.

Dynamic MAC address entries are obtained by learning the source MAC addresses of packets received by an interface and can be aged out.

B.

After a device is reset, an interface card is hot-swapped, or an interface card is reset, dynamic MAC address entries on the device or interface card are lost.

C.

You can obtain the number of users communicating on an interface by checking the number of specified dynamic MAC address entries.

D.

After a device is reset, an interface card is hot-swapped, or an interface card is reset, the saved entries on the device or interface card are not lost.

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Questions 25

If a device running STP receives an RSTP configuration BPDU, it discards the BPDU.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 26

(Which of the following statements is true about active interface election for an Eth-Trunk in LACP mode?)

Options:

A.

Only interface priorities are compared.

B.

Device priorities are compared.

C.

Interface priorities are compared first. If priorities of interfaces on the Actor are the same, interfaces with smaller interface numbers are elected as active interfaces.

D.

Only interface numbers are compared.

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Questions 27

Assuming that OSPF has been enabled on all routers in the following figure, which router is the BDR on this network?

Options:

A.

Router B

B.

Router A

C.

Router D

D.

Router C

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Questions 28

Which of the following statements is true about the edge port in RSTP?

Options:

A.

Interconnected ports between switches must be configured as edge ports.

B.

Edge ports participate in RSTP calculation.

C.

The edge port can directly transition from the Disabled state to the Forwarding state.

D.

The edge port discards the received configuration BPDUs.

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Questions 29

The users who log on the router through Telnet are not permitted to configure an IP address. What is the possible reason?

Options:

A.

Privilege level of Telnet is set incorrectly.

B.

SNMP parameters are set incorrectly.

C.

The authentication mode of Telnet is set incorrectly.

D.

Communication failures occur between the user and the router.

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Questions 30

When the "delete vrpcfg.zip" command is run on the Huawei VRP user interface, the file can be permanently deleted only after it is cleared from the recycle bin.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 31

After an Eth-Trunk in LACP mode is created, devices on both ends send LACPDUs to elect the Actor. Which of the following parameters in LACPDUs determine the Actor election?

Options:

A.

Device priority

B.

Interface number

C.

MAC address

D.

Interface priority

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Questions 32

What are the advantages of OSPF?

Options:

A.

OSPF can load balance traffic among equal-cost routes.

B.

OSPF supports area partition.

C.

OSPF supports packet authentication.

D.

OSPF supports Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR).

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Questions 33

(ICMP packets do not contain port numbers. Therefore, NAPT cannot be used.)

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 34

IPv6 uses NS and NA packets to perform duplicate address detection (DAD).

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 35

What are the advantages of using DHCP to allocate IP addresses?

Options:

A.

DHCP can prevent IP address conflicts.

B.

DHCP provides heavy workload and is difficult to manage.

C.

IP addresses can be reused.

D.

If the configuration information changes, for example, the DNS server address changes, the administrator only needs to modify the configuration information on the DHCP server, facilitating unified management.

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Questions 36

What is used as the data link-layer MAC address that identifies each VAP on an AP?

Options:

A.

BSSID

B.

SSID

C.

BSS

D.

ESS

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Questions 37

(Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) implements software-based network application deployment.)

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 38

The tree topology is a hierarchical star topology, facilitating network expansion. A consequence of this topology is that faults on a node at a higher layer are more severe.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 39

Refer to the following configuration of an interface on a switch. What is the PVID of the interface?

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

port hybrid tagged vlan 2 to 3 100

port hybrid untagged vlan 4 6

Options:

A.

1

B.

4

C.

2

D.

100

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Questions 40

Assume that an OSPF-enabled router has no loopback interface configured. What would be used as the router ID?

Options:

A.

The preference of the router

B.

The smallest IP address of a physical interface on the router (if configured)

C.

The IP address of the router's management interface (if configured)

D.

The biggest IP address of a physical interface on the router (if configured)

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Questions 41

Which of the following commands is used to configure the country code on an AC?

Options:

A.

country-code

B.

province-code

C.

nation-code

D.

state-code

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Questions 42

Which of the following routes has the highest priority?

Options:

A.

RIP route

B.

Static route

C.

Direct route

D.

OSPF route

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Questions 43

Which of the following statements about VLANIF interfaces is/are correct?

Options:

A.

Different VLANIF interfaces can use the same IP address.

B.

A VLANIF interface is a Layer 3 interface.

C.

VLANIF interfaces do not need to learn MAC addresses.

D.

A VLANIF interface does not have a MAC address.

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Questions 44

(Each network device running SNMP runs an agent process locally.)

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 45

Which of the following is correct regarding the configuration of the trunk port and access port on a switch?

Options:

A.

Access ports can only send untagged frames.

B.

Trunk ports can only send tagged frames.

C.

Access ports can only send tagged frames.

D.

Trunk ports can only send untagged frames.

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Questions 46

Which type of IPv6 address is FE80::2E0:FCFF:FE6F:4F36?

Options:

A.

Global unicast address

B.

Multicast address

C.

Link-local address

D.

Anycast address

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Questions 47

In RSTP mode, both alternate and backup ports cannot forward user traffic and cannot receive, process, and send BPDU.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 48

Refer to the following configuration of GigabitEthernet0/0/1 on the switch. For which VLAN does the switch forward untagged data frames?

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

port link-type trunk

port trunk pvid vlan 10

port trunk allow-pass vlan 10 20 30 40

Options:

A.

10

B.

30

C.

40

D.

20

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Questions 49

Which of the following mask lengths is recommended for device interconnection IP addresses during campus network planning?

Options:

A.

30

B.

32

C.

24

D.

16

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Questions 50

If AAA authentication is used on Huawei devices and the remote server does not respond, the authentication can be performed on network devices.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 51

While inspecting packets in the network, a network administrator discovers a frame with the destination MAC address of 01-00-5E-A0-B1-C3. What can the administrator determine from this?

Options:

A.

The MAC address is incorrect.

B.

The MAC address is a multicast address.

C.

The MAC address is a broadcast address.

D.

The MAC address is a unicast address.

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Questions 52

Which of the following ACLs cannot match network layer information?

Options:

A.

User ACL

B.

Advanced ACL

C.

Basic ACL

D.

Layer 2 ACL

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Questions 53

If Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is disabled on the network consisting of switches, a Layer 2 loop will definitely occur.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 54

The network administrator has decided to configure link aggregation in the enterprise network. Which of the following represent advantages of link aggregation?

Options:

A.

Load balancing.

B.

Improved bandwidth.

C.

Enhanced reliability.

D.

Improved security.

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Questions 55

Refer to the following VLAN configurations on a Huawei switch. Which of the following statements are true?

Options:

A.

Client 4 belongs to VLAN 40, and the commands for VLAN assignment on the switch are correct.

B.

Client 2 belongs to VLAN 20, and the commands for MAC address-based VLAN assignment on the switch are correct.

C.

Client 1 belongs to VLAN 10, and the commands for VLAN assignment on the switch are correct.

D.

Client 3 belongs to VLAN 30, and the commands for VLAN assignment on the switch are correct.

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Questions 56

Which of the following MAC addresses cannot be used as the MAC address of host network adapters?

Options:

A.

0002-0304-05-06

B.

02-03-04-05-06-07

C.

01-02-03-04-05-06

D.

03-04-05-06-07-08

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Questions 57

Refer to the graphic, which of the following statements is true about OSPF topology and configuration?

Options:

A.

Compared with R1, R2 is more likely to become the DR because the DR priority of the interface on R2 is lower than that of R1.

B.

After the default network type of the interface on R1 is restored to broadcast, a stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.

C.

After the default network type of the interface on R1 is restored to broadcast and the hello packet sending interval is changed to 10s, a stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.

D.

A stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.

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Questions 58

The following figure shows the configuration of a sub-interface on a router. For which VLAN does the sub-interface receive tagged data frames?

Options:

A.

20

B.

1

C.

30

D.

100

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Questions 59

In STP, the bridge ID on the switching network is as follows. With which of the following bridge IDs is the switch selected as the root bridge?

Options:

A.

32768 00-01-02-03-04-BB

B.

4096 00-01-02-03-04-DD

C.

32768 00-01-02-03-04-CC

D.

32768 00-01-02-03-04-AA

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Questions 60

How many port states are involved in RSTP?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

3

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Questions 61

Which of the following is not a characteristic of small campus networks?

Options:

A.

Simple network requirements

B.

Wide coverage

C.

Simple network architecture

D.

Small number of users

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Questions 62

Which of the following configurations can prevent Host A and Host B from communicating with each other?

Options:

A.

acl number 2000 rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 traffic-filter inbound acl 2000

B.

acl number 2000 rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2 traffic-filter inbound acl 2000

C.

acl number 2000 rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/3 traffic-filter inbound acl 2000

D.

acl number 2000 rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 traffic-filter outbound acl 2000

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Questions 63

(The administrator performs the configuration shown in the figure on a router, and a host is connected to Gi/0/0 of the router. Which of the following statements is true about the IP address obtained by the host through DHCP?)

Options:

A.

The host cannot obtain an IP address.

B.

The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.10.10.0/24 network segment.

C.

The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.20.20.0/24 network segment.

D.

The IP address obtained by the host may belong to the 10.10.10.0/24 or 10.20.20.0/24 network segment.

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Questions 64

Which statement is true regarding the following command?

ip route-static 10.0.12.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1

Options:

A.

The configuration represents a static route to the 10.0.12.0 network.

B.

The configuration represents a static route to the 192.168.1.1 network.

C.

If the router has learned the same destination network via a dynamic routing protocol, the static route will always take precedence.

D.

The preference value of this configured route is 100.

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Questions 65

Which of the following statements about the routing table shown in the figure are true?

Options:

A.

The local router forwards data packets destined for 10.0.2.2 from Ethernet0/0/0.

B.

The next hop in the route to the destination network 10.0.3.3/32 is not directly connected. Therefore, the local router does not forward data packets destined for 10.0.3.3.

C.

The local router forwards data packets destined for 10.0.12.1 from Ethernet0/0/0.

D.

The local router forwards data packets destined for 10.0.3.3 from Ethernet0/0/0.

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Questions 66

Which of the following elements are included in a routing table?

Options:

A.

Cost

B.

Next-hop address

C.

Protocol

D.

Interface

E.

Destination/Mask

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Questions 67

A router that runs OSPF can enter the Full state only after Link-State Database (LSDB) synchronization is completed.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 68

SWA and SWB run RSTP. Which of the following statements are true?

Options:

A.

G0/0/3 of SWB is a backup port.

B.

G0/0/3 of SWA is a designated port.

C.

G0/0/3 of SWB is an alternate port.

D.

G0/0/2 of SWA is a designated port.

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Questions 69

You can run the user-interface maximum-vty command to configure the maximum number of users who can log in to the device through Telnet simultaneously.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 70

With SNMP, an NMS can only display the device running status but cannot deliver configurations.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 71

When forwarding a data packet, a router needs to change the destination IP address of the packet.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 72

Which of the following statements regarding static routing and dynamic routing is incorrect?

Options:

A.

Dynamic routing will use more resources than static routes.

B.

The static routing can automatically recover when a link failure is encountered.

C.

The use of dynamic routing is more convenient for the administrator to manage the network following network convergence.

D.

The static routing can be easily configured and managed on the enterprise network.

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Questions 73

(Which of the following are not main functions of routers?)

Options:

A.

Routers forward data packets based on source IP addresses.

B.

Routers enable devices on the same network segment to communicate with each other.

C.

Routers forward data packets according to routing tables.

D.

Routers learn routes through multiple routing protocols and add them to the routing table.

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Questions 74

On an STP-enabled switch, a port in the Learning state can transition to the Forwarding state only after the Forward Delay timer expires.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 75

The following figure shows the display stp command output on an STP-enabled port — Ethernet 0/0/1. Which of the following statements about the command output is false?

Options:

A.

The value of the Forward Delay timer is 20 seconds.

B.

The value of the Max Age timer of configuration BPDUs is 20 seconds.

C.

The interval for Ethernet 0/0/1 to send configuration BPDUs is 2 seconds.

D.

This switch is not the root bridge.

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Questions 76

Only the WPA2-PSK security policy supports TKIP data encryption.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 77

By referring to the topology and the configurations of G0/0/1 interfaces on LSW1 and LSW2 shown in the figure, it can be determined that data frames tagged with VLAN 10 can be normally forwarded between LSW1 and LSW2.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 78

(By default, in the SNMP protocol, which port number is used by the proxy process to send alarm messages to the NMS?)

Options:

A.

164

B.

163

C.

161

D.

162

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Questions 79

Fit APs can work independently of an AC.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 80

Which of the following WLAN security policies support open link authentication?

Options:

A.

WPA

B.

WEP

C.

WPA2-PSK

D.

WPA2-802.1X

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Questions 81

Which of the following are not layers in the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Presentation layer

B.

Transport layer

C.

Session layer

D.

Application layer

E.

Network layer

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Questions 82

Refer to the following configuration of a switch interface. Which of the following statements is false?

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

port link-type trunk

port trunk pvid vlan 200

port trunk allow-pass vlan 100

Options:

A.

If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 100, the switch removes the VLAN tag before sending the data frame.

B.

If the interface receives data frames without VLAN tags, the switch needs to tag the data frames with VLAN 200.

C.

The interface cannot send data frames tagged with VLAN 200.

D.

The link type of the interface is trunk.

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Questions 83

The router that runs OSPF first enters the Full state and then synchronizes the LSDB.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 84

Which of the following parts compose SNMP?

Options:

A.

Management Information Base (MIB)

B.

Managed object

C.

Agent process

D.

NMS

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Questions 85

(Which of the following descriptions regarding the STP forwarding state is incorrect?)

Options:

A.

A port in a forwarding state can send BPDU.

B.

A port in a forwarding state does not learn the source MAC address of a frame.

C.

A port in a forwarding state can receive BPDU.

D.

A port in a forwarding state can forward frames.

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Questions 86

Which of the following methods can be used to add APs on an AC?

Options:

A.

Import APs when they are offline.

B.

Add APs when they are online.

C.

Configure the AC to automatically discover APs.

D.

Manually confirm APs in the list of unauthorized APs.

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Questions 87

The IP address 192.168.1.127/25 represents a ( ) address.

Options:

A.

Broadcast

B.

Multicast

C.

Host

D.

Network

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Questions 88

The network administrator performs the configuration shown in the following figure on RTA. If a user needs to be authenticated in the authentication domain named huawei, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The authentication scheme au2 is used for authentication.

B.

The authentication scheme aul is used for authentication.

C.

The authentication scheme au2 is used for authentication. If the authentication scheme au2 is deleted, the authentication scheme aul is used.

D.

The authentication scheme aul is used for authentication. If the authentication scheme aul is deleted, the authentication scheme au2 is used.

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Questions 89

On the network shown in the figure, VLAN 2 is created on SWA and SWB, and interfaces connected to hosts are access ports added to VLAN 2. G0/0/1 on SWA and G0/0/2 on SWB are trunk interfaces allowing all VLANs. What additional configuration is needed on SWC to ensure communication between Host A and Host B?

Options:

A.

Create VLAN 2 on SWC.

B.

Configure G0/0/1 on SWC as a trunk interface that allows packets from VLAN 2 to pass through.

C.

Create VLAN 2 on SWC, and configure G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 as trunk interfaces that allow packets from VLAN 2 to pass through.

D.

On SWC, configure G0/0/1 as a trunk interface that allows packets from VLAN 2 to pass through, configure G0/0/2 as an access interface, and set the PVID to 2.

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Questions 90

As shown in the figure, RTA uses NAT and has an address pool configured to implement many-to-many non-NAPT address translation, so that hosts on the private network can access the public network. Assume that the address pool has only two public IP addresses, which are translated for Host A and Host B. If Host C wants to access the public network, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

All hosts use public IP addresses in turn and can access the public network.

B.

No public IP address is assigned to Host C, and Host C cannot access the public network.

C.

RTA performs NAT based on the source port number of Host C, and Host C can access the public network.

D.

RTA assigns an interface address (200.10.10.3) to Host C, and Host C can access the public network.

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Questions 91

An administrator wishes to manage the router in the remote branch office, which method can be used?

Options:

A.

Console Connection

B.

FTP

C.

Telnet

D.

DHCP

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Questions 92

What is the number range of an advanced ACL?

Options:

A.

2000-2999

B.

3000-3999

C.

6000-6031

D.

4000-4999

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Questions 93

The authentication, authorization, and accounting schemes and HWTACACS or RADIUS server templates created on AR routers take effect only after being applied to a domain.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 94

To provide the information about the IP addresses that a user packet traverses along the path to the destination, which of the following does Tracert record in each expired ICMP TTL packet?

Options:

A.

Source port.

B.

Destination IP address.

C.

Source IP address.

D.

Destination port.

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Questions 95

Which SNMP version focuses on two main aspects, namely security and administration? The security aspect is addressed by offering both strong authentication and data encryption for privacy. The administration aspect is focused on two parts, namely notification originators and proxy forwarders.

Options:

A.

SNMPv2

B.

SNMPv2c

C.

SNMPv3

D.

SNMPv1

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Questions 96

On an STP-enabled switch, a port in the forwarding state can receive BPDU packets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 97

Which of the following statements are true about the shortcut keys of the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP)?

Options:

A.

Press "TAB" to view the latest command.

B.

Press "CTRL+Z" to return to the user view.

C.

Press the left cursor key (←) to move the cursor one bit leftwards.

D.

Press "CTRL+C" to stop operation of the current command.

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Questions 98

When two switches are connected through link aggregation, what are the requirements for the interfaces on the two switches?

Options:

A.

The physical interface rates of the interconnected switches are the same.

B.

The physical interface quantities of the interconnected switches are the same.

C.

The models of the optical modules used by the interconnected switches are the same.

D.

The duplex modes of the physical interfaces on the interconnected switches are the same.

E.

The physical interface IDs of the interconnected switches are the same.

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Questions 99

Which of the following parameters is used to elect the root bridge in STP?

Options:

A.

Bridge ID

B.

Port ID

C.

Root path cost

D.

System name of the switch

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Questions 100

A company applies for a class C IP address for subnetting. It has eight branches, and the largest branch has a subnet that should support at least 14 hosts. What would be an appropriate subnet mask?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.192

B.

255.255.255.224

C.

255.255.255.128

D.

255.255.255.0

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Questions 101

When Fit APs go online on an AC, they will necessarily download the system software package from the AC.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 102

The Network Management Station uses SNMP to manage devices. Which SNMP message is sent when an SNMP-registered abnormal event occurs?

Options:

A.

trap

B.

get-request

C.

set-request

D.

get-response

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Questions 103

Assuming all STP enabled switches have the same bridge priority. The MAC address of switch A is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, the MAC address of switch B is 00-e0-fc-00-00-10, the MAC address of switch C is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and the MAC address of switch D is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which switch will be elected as the root switch?

Options:

A.

Switch B

B.

Switch A

C.

Switch D

D.

Switch C

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Questions 104

When a router is powered on, the router reads the configuration file saved in the default save directory to get itself initialized. If the configuration file does not exist in the default save directory, what does the router use to initialize itself?

Options:

A.

Default parameters.

B.

Initial configuration file.

C.

Current configuration file.

D.

New configuration file.

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Questions 105

Which of the following DHCP options needs to be configured on the DHCP server to allow Fit APs to obtain the IP address of an AC and establish CAPWAP tunnels?

Options:

A.

Option 55

B.

Option 82

C.

Option 10

D.

Option 43

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Exam Code: H12-811_V1.0
Exam Name: HCIA-Datacom V1.0 Exam
Last Update: Mar 8, 2025
Questions: 350
$66  $164.99
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