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GRCP Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

Options:

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

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Questions 5

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

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Questions 6

The Critical Disciplines skills of Audit & Assurance help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Managing mergers and acquisitions, evaluating investment opportunities, conducting due diligence, and integrating acquired businesses

B.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

C.

Prioritizing assurance activities, planning and performing assessments, using testing techniques, and communicating to enhance confidence

D.

Identifying critical physical and digital assets, assessing related risks, addressing related risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and performing crisis response

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Questions 7

Why is it important to design specific inquiry routines to detect unfavorable events?

Options:

A.

To prioritize the discovery of favorable events.

B.

To avoid the need for technology-based inquiry methods.

C.

To detect them as soon as possible.

D.

To prevent the need for observations and conversations.

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Questions 8

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Questions 9

The Critical Discipline skills of Compliance & Ethics help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

B.

Planning for risks, identifying risks, assessing risks, addressing risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and using decision science

C.

Identifying mandatory and voluntary obligations, assessing risk, setting policy, educating the workforce, and shaping ethical culture

D.

Fostering creativity, encouraging innovation, facilitating brainstorming, supporting idea generation, and promoting design thinking

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Questions 10

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

Options:

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

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Questions 11

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

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Questions 12

Which is a potential consequence of information compression in layered communication?

Options:

A.

Uninformed decision-making by mid-level management

B.

No consequence of concern if the correct, undistorted information is always available in the information management systems

C.

Incorrect information content and information flow to superior units

D.

Discovery of the need to remove layers so that the communications are more direct and distortion is avoided

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Questions 13

What are some considerations that should be taken into account when examining an organization’s internal context?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance, legal disputes, and contractual obligations on a unit-by-unit or division-by-division basis

B.

How any changes to the internal context might affect supplier relationships, distribution channels, and pricing strategies

C.

Mission and vision, values, value propositions and operating models, organizational charts and operating model mapping, key department scope and purpose, and potential perverse incentives

D.

Market share, employee and customer satisfaction, and brand reputation

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Questions 14

In the context of assurance activities, what is meant by the term "suitable criteria"?

Options:

A.

Benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results

B.

Legal and regulatory requirements that an organization must comply with

C.

Ethical standards and codes of conduct established by an organization

D.

Financial targets and performance metrics set by an organization

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Questions 15

What is the purpose of proactively developing communication channels within an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that all communication is delivered in written form only.

B.

To ensure that the channels are available before they are needed.

C.

To formalize the process so that employees know that anything they communicate will be kept in records.

D.

To limit communication to a single channel for simplicity and cost savings.

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Questions 16

In the LEARN component, what is the difference between external context and internal context?

Options:

A.

External context includes the organization's risk management policies, while internal context includes its compliance procedures

B.

External context represents the operating environment, while internal context represents capabilities and resources

C.

External context refers to the organization's financial performance, while internal context refers to its governance structure

D.

External context encompasses the organization's mission and vision, while internal context encompasses its values and culture

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Questions 17

Why is assurance never considered absolute?

Options:

A.

Because it is only applicable to certain industries and sectors

B.

Because the subject matter, assurance providers, information producers, and information consumers are all fallible

C.

Because it does not provide a written guarantee of the accuracy and reliability of the subject matter

D.

Because it is solely based on the opinions and judgments of the assurance provider

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Questions 18

A self-legitimizing person, group, or other entity with a direct or indirect invested interest in an organization’s actions because of the perceived or actual impact is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Shareholder

B.

Stakeholder

C.

Executive Team

D.

Customer

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Questions 19

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves integrating Critical Disciplines to approach work from multiple dimensions?

Options:

A.

Accountable

B.

Visionary

C.

Versatile

D.

Intradisciplinary

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Questions 20

What are the three main aspects that organizations must face and address while driving toward objectives?

Options:

A.

Opportunities (reward), obstacles (risk), and obligations (compliance)

B.

Profitability, liquidity, and solvency

C.

Growth, diversification, and resiliency

D.

Leadership, teamwork, and communication

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Questions 21

What is the role of an assurance provider in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

They conduct activities to evaluate claims and statements about subject matter to enhance confidence.

B.

They oversee the implementation of the organization's compliance program and policies.

C.

They conduct financial audits and issue audit reports.

D.

They develop the organization’s risk management strategy and framework.

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Questions 22

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the occurrence of an event?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Cause

D.

Likelihood

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Questions 23

What is the purpose of analyzing the internal context within an organization?

Options:

A.

To consider internal strengths and weaknesses, strategic plans, operating plans, organizational structures, policies, people, processes, technology, resources, information, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

B.

To determine the organization’s financial performance and profitability with its current plans, structures, people, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

C.

To evaluate the organization’s use of resources in relation to its established objectives.

D.

To assess how the organization operates given market conditions and competitive landscape.

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Questions 24

What is the purpose of assigning accountability for external factors within an organization?

Options:

A.

To eliminate the need for hiring consultants or law firms to monitor external factors

B.

To ensure that individuals with authority and resources are responsible for successfully analyzing, influencing, and sensing external factors that may impact the organization

C.

To reduce the workload of the organization's top management and having staff people track external factors relevant to their own roles

D.

To know who will be using technology to track external events so proper access can be assigned

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Questions 25

What is the importance of mapping objectives to one another within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units shows how they impact one another and how resources may be best allocated

B.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for determining the compensation and bonuses of employees based on their contributions to achieving objectives

C.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for creating a visual representation of the organization’s hierarchy and reporting structure

D.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for identifying redundant objectives and eliminating them from the organization’s strategic plan

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Questions 26

In the IACM, what is the role of Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To decrease the likelihood of unfavorable events

B.

To identify areas in the organization where compliance issues may arise

C.

To promote collaboration and teamwork among employees

D.

To ensure compliance with industry-specific regulations

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Questions 27

In the IACM, what is the role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assess any damage done to the company from non-compliance

B.

To slow down or decrease the impact of unfavorable events and return the organization to its original, stable, or superior state after harm has occurred

C.

To ensure that all employees adhere to the company's code of conduct

D.

To ensure that unfavorable events do not affect the profitability of the organization

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Questions 28

What is the purpose of conducting after-action reviews?

Options:

A.

To determine if, when, how, and what to disclose regarding unfavorable events

B.

To provide timely incentives to employees for favorable conduct

C.

To uncover root causes of favorable and unfavorable events and improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

To establish a tiered approach for responding to unfavorable events

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Questions 29

How does the IACM address unfavorable events related to obstacles?

Options:

A.

By focusing on opportunities

B.

By decreasing the ultimate likelihood and impact of harm

C.

By implementing a flat organizational structure

D.

By conducting regular employee satisfaction surveys

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Questions 30

What is the role of a values statement in an organization?

Options:

A.

A values statement reflects the shared beliefs and expectations of the organization's leadership, employees, and stakeholders and serves as a guide for establishing a positive and productive organizational culture.

B.

A values statement is a legal document that outlines the financial obligations and liabilities of the organization that contribute to its value.

C.

A values statement is a formal agreement between the organization and its suppliers to ensure the timely delivery of goods and services that are essential to building the organization’s value.

D.

A values statement is a marketing tool used to attract new customers and investors to the organization.

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Questions 31

What is the role of the Second Line in the Lines of Accountability Model?

Options:

A.

The Second Line is responsible for conducting external audits and providing assurance to stakeholders

B.

The Second Line is responsible for making strategic decisions and setting the overall direction of the organization, deciding on objectives and issuing decision-making guidance

C.

The Second Line establishes performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line, and provides oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques

D.

The Second Line focuses on the day-to-day operational activities of the organization to address risk and compliance requirements

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Questions 32

What is the relationship between monitoring and assurance activities in identifying opportunities for improvement?

Options:

A.

Monitoring activities focus on improvement, while assurance activities focus on risk assessment

B.

Monitoring and assurance activities have no relationship and operate independently

C.

Monitoring activities are related to financial improvement, while assurance activities are related to operational improvement

D.

Both monitoring and assurance activities identify opportunities to improve total performance

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Questions 33

What is the significance of a vision statement in inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers?

Options:

A.

It specifies the organization's views on ethical issues facing it.

B.

It describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters, serving as a guidepost for long-term strategic planning and inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers.

C.

It details the organization's sales targets and revenue projections to motivate employees to work hard and meet those goals.

D.

It outlines the organization's succession planning and leadership development.

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Questions 34

In the context of the Maturity Model, what characterizes practices at Level I?

Options:

A.

Practices are improvised, ad hoc, and often chaotic.

B.

Practices are formally documented and consistently managed.

C.

Practices are measured and managed with data-driven evidence.

D.

Practices are consistently improved over time.

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Questions 35

How do strategic goals differ from other objectives within an organization?

Options:

A.

Strategic goals are short-term objectives focused on the organization’s daily operations and activities

B.

Strategic goals are specific targets related to the organization’s sales and marketing efforts

C.

Strategic goals are long-term objectives typically set at higher levels of the organization and serve as guideposts for long-term strategic planning

D.

Strategic goals are quantitative measures of the organization’s financial performance and profitability

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Questions 36

What is the role of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

KPIs are subjective measures that are not based on any specific metrics or data

B.

KPIs are indicators that help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective

C.

KPIs are only relevant for external reporting and have no impact on internal decision-making

D.

KPIs are used to determine employee compensation and bonuses

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Questions 37

What type of incentives are established through compensation, reward, and recognition programs?

Options:

A.

Social Incentives

B.

Economic Incentives

C.

Management Incentives

D.

Individualized Incentives

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Questions 38

In the IACM, what is the role of Promote/Enable Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To increase the likelihood of favorable events

B.

To establish clear lines of communication within the organization

C.

To set performance metrics for all actions and controls

D.

To establish and enable controls that mitigate potential security threats

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Questions 39

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

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Questions 40

What is compliance, and how is it measured in an organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance is a measure of the degree to which obligations are proven to be addressed, and it is measured by assessing requirements, actions & controls to address requirements, and evidence of effectiveness.

B.

Compliance is the ability to avoid legal disputes, and it is measured by the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions filed against the organization.

C.

Compliance is the financial success of the organization, and it is measured by revenue and profit margins.

D.

Compliance is the level of stakeholder satisfaction measured through stakeholder surveys and feedback.

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Questions 41

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

Options:

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

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Questions 42

What are the two key factors that determine the level of assurance provided by an assurance provider?

Options:

A.

Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence

B.

Assurance Transparency and Assurance Accountability

C.

Assurance Consistency and Assurance Reliability

D.

Assurance Efficiency and Assurance Effectiveness

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Questions 43

What does resilience measure in the context of the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Resilience measures the durability and longevity of the organization’s physical assets

B.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to recover from financial losses and setbacks

C.

Resilience measures the ability to withstand stress and the capability to align after stress

D.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to maintain a positive reputation in the face of public scrutiny

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Questions 44

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

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Questions 45

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to eventually result in benefit?

Options:

A.

Venture

B.

Objective

C.

Prospect

D.

Target outcome

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Questions 46

What is the role of risk management systems and key risk indicators (KRIs) in an organization?

Options:

A.

To assess the level of compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

B.

To evaluate the potential impact of market fluctuations and economic conditions

C.

To address obstacles and measure the negative, unfavorable effect of uncertainty on objectives

D.

To identify and mitigate potential threats to the organization's security and reputation

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Questions 47

A statement about what the organization stands for is best labeled as the:

Options:

A.

Values

B.

Vision

C.

Outcome

D.

Mission

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Questions 48

What are the two aspects of value that Protectors are skilled at balancing within an organization?

Options:

A.

Value creation and value protection

B.

Value production and value preservation

C.

Value measurement and value analysis

D.

Value assessment and value reporting

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Questions 49

Why is it important for an organization to define events and timescales that trigger reconsideration of external factors?

Options:

A.

It allows the organization to reduce its staff time addressing changes in the external context

B.

It helps the organization avoid the need for hiring consultants or law firms to recommend how to respond to changes in the external context

C.

It eliminates the need for supply chain management and procurement activities on an ongoing basis and only requires response to defined events in the supply chain

D.

It ensures that the organization remains responsive and adaptable to changes in the external context that may impact its operations and objectives

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Questions 50

What does it mean for an organization to be "agile" within the context of the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The ability to rapidly expand and scale the organization’s operations in response to change

B.

The ability to quickly re-learn context and culture when things change

C.

The ability to adapt the organization’s mission and vision to changing market conditions

D.

The ability to effectively manage risks and respond to compliance issues that are identified

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Questions 51

In the context of GRC, what is the significance of setting objectives that are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and timebound (SMART)?

Options:

A.

SMART objectives can be more easily communicated to stakeholders to gain their confidence

B.

SMART objectives allow the organization to avoid accountability and responsibility for failing to achieve objectives

C.

SMART objectives provide clarity, focus, and direction and help ensure that objectives are effectively aligned with the organization’s goals and priorities

D.

SMART objectives are only relevant for financial objectives and have no impact on non-financial objectives

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Questions 52

What is the end result of the alignment process in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

The end result of alignment is a detailed budget and financial forecast

B.

The end result of alignment is a comprehensive risk assessment report

C.

The end result of alignment is an integrated plan of action

D.

The end result of alignment is a detailed organizational chart with lines of reporting

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Questions 53

What is the difference between "inherent effect" and "residual effect" of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of reward

B.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls

C.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of reward

D.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls

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Questions 54

Which design option is characterized by ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Control

D.

Avoid

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Questions 55

Why is monitoring important in the context of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Because it generates financial reports for stakeholders.

B.

Because it contributes to employee performance evaluations.

C.

Because it is a required task for external regulatory compliance.

D.

Because it helps management and the governing authority understand progress toward objectives and whether opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are addressed.

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Questions 56

How can organizations encourage the occurrence of positive events while preventing negative ones?

Options:

A.

Through implementing proactive actions and controls

B.

Through employee training and follow-up

C.

Through using financial actions and controls

D.

Through relying on responsive actions and controls

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Questions 57

How do objectives influence the identification and analysis of opportunities and obstacles in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Objectives drive the identification, analysis, and prioritization of opportunities, obstacles, and opportunities

B.

Objectives determine the level of risk tolerance for the organization as it addresses opportunities and obstacles

C.

Objectives outline the roles and responsibilities of employees in the alignment process

D.

Objectives specify the types of software and technology the governing body wants to have used in the alignment process

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Questions 58

What is the importance of analyzing workforce culture in an organization?

Options:

A.

To analyze the climate and mindsets about workforce satisfaction, loyalty, turnover rates, skill development, and engagement

B.

To determine the organization’s commitment to reducing turnover and supporting employee advancement

C.

To ensure the organization’s compliance with environmental regulations and sustainability practices that evidence ethical concern

D.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s employee training in ethical decision-making

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Questions 59

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to result in harm?

Options:

A.

Hazard

B.

Prospect

C.

Opportunity

D.

Obstacle

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Questions 60

What is the term used to describe the outcome or potential outcome of an event?

Options:

A.

Consequence

B.

Impact

C.

Condition

D.

Effect

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Questions 61

What are some key practices involved in managing policies within an organization?

Options:

A.

Having internal audit design standard policy templates to make assessment of their effectiveness easier

B.

Delegating policy management to each unit of the organization so there is a sense of accountability established

C.

Implementing, communicating, enforcing, and auditing policies and related procedures to ensure that they operate as intended and remain relevant

D.

Establishing policy management technology that has pre-populated templates so the organization’s policies meet industry standards

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Questions 62

Why is it important for an organization to balance the needs of diverse stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To prevent stakeholders from forming alliances against the organization.

B.

To ensure that all stakeholders receive equal consideration.

C.

To comply with industry regulations regarding stakeholder management.

D.

To address the requests, wants, or expectations of stakeholders and inform the mission, vision, and objectives of the organization.

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Questions 63

How does the Maturity Model help organizations assess their preparedness to perform practices?

Options:

A.

By evaluating the performance of managers and their teams involved in GRC processes

B.

By acting as a tool for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

C.

By helping organizations determine the budget allocation for GRC programs and where to apply resources across the GRC capabilities

D.

By providing a continuum with levels that allow organizations to assess their capability to perform practices, identify areas for improvement, and develop maturity incrementally from one level to the next

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Questions 64

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

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Questions 65

Why is continual improvement considered a hallmark of a mature and high-performing capability and organization?

Options:

A.

Because it increases the organization's market share.

B.

Because it enables the capability and organization to evolve and enhance total performance.

C.

Because it ensures compliance with regulatory requirements.

D.

Because it reduces the likelihood of employee turnover.

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Questions 66

How can integrity be conceptualized as a ratio?

Options:

A.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of regulations that are applicable to enforcement actions against the company

B.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of successful projects to failed projects

C.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of Promises Kept divided by Promises Made, with the goal of achieving a ratio close to 1 or 100%

D.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of total revenue to total expenses

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Questions 67

What are some examples of informal mechanisms that can capture notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

An open-door policy and direct communication with management.

B.

Public announcements and press releases.

C.

Standard reporting forms and documentation.

D.

Audits and third-party assessments.

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Questions 68

Which of the following reflects what the learner will be able to do after a learning activity?

Options:

A.

Learning Assessment

B.

Learning Objective

C.

Learning Content

D.

Learning Outcome

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Questions 69

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

Options:

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

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Questions 70

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

Options:

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

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Questions 71

What is a potential advantage of using quantitative analysis techniques in the context of risk, reward, and compliance?

Options:

A.

Quantitative analysis techniques only require consideration of financial aspects of risk and reward so they are easier to use

B.

Quantitative analysis techniques allow for the estimation of risk, reward, and compliance using numerical data, enabling more precise comparisons to targets, tolerances, and capacities

C.

Quantitative analysis techniques eliminate the need for any qualitative analysis

D.

Quantitative analysis techniques disregard compliance requirements and focus solely on risk and reward

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Questions 72

Within an organization, what is the governing authority responsible for?

Options:

A.

Directly managing the most critical aspects of the organization's operations to ensure they achieve established objectives

B.

Designing every strategic plan that applies at any level of the organization

C.

Negotiating contracts with all organization executives, as well as all suppliers and vendors

D.

Balancing the competing needs of stakeholders to guide, constrain, and conscribe the organization to reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity

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Questions 73

What is the role of continuous control monitoring in the context of notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is used to monitor employees' personal communications.

B.

It is a tool that provides automated alerts for notifications within an organization.

C.

It is a method primarily for tracking the organization's speed of response to notifications.

D.

It is a technique for listening to hotline employees to ensure they are providing the right information.

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Questions 74

What are some examples of technology factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Market segmentation, pricing strategies, and promotional activities

B.

Research and Design activity, innovations in materials, mechanical efficiency, and the rate of technological change

C.

How the organization uses technology for employee recruitment, onboarding processes, and performance appraisals

D.

How the organization uses financial forecasting, budgeting, and cost control

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Exam Code: GRCP
Exam Name: GRC Professional Certification Exam
Last Update: Jun 30, 2025
Questions: 212
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