CS0-003 Sample Questions Answers

Increasing training and awareness for all staff is the best way to address the issue of employees being enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and running downloaded files when prompted by phone calls. This issue is an example of social engineering, which is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. Social engineering can take many forms, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, or impersonation. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and train the staff on how to recognize and avoid common social engineering tactics, such as:

Verifying the identity and legitimacy of the caller or sender before following their instructions or clicking on any links or attachments

Being wary of unsolicited or unexpected requests for information or action, especially if they involve urgency, pressure, or threats

Reporting any suspicious or anomalous activity to the security team or the appropriate authority

Following the organization’s policies and procedures on security awareness and best practices

Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

This log shows multiple 404 errors being triggered from requests to different directories or paths, which strongly suggests adirectory brute-force attack. In this type of attack, an adversary uses automated tools to enumerate directory or file paths in an attempt to find hidden or misconfigured resources. The frequent 404 “Not Found” HTTP responses from a single IP address attempting to access different URL paths is the signature pattern for directory brute-forcing. This behavior is not consistent with XSS, SQLi, or RCE, which would involve payloads or specific encoded commands, not merely probing paths.

The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing algorithms.

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) can help the SOC analyst reduce the number of alarms by automating the process of removing duplicates and managing security alerts more efficiently. SOAR platforms enable security teams to define, prioritize, and standardize response procedures, which helps in reducing the workload and improving the overall efficiency of incident response by handling repetitive and low-level tasks automatically.

An incident response plan (IRP) is a document that defines the roles and responsibilities, procedures, and guidelines for responding to a security incident. It helps the security team to act quickly and effectively, minimizing the impact and cost of the incident. An IRP should specify who should conduct the next steps following a security event, such as containment, eradication, recovery, and analysis12. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 362; 6 Incident Response Steps to Take After a Security Event, section 2.

SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34. Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5. References: Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface · Arachni/arachni Wiki · GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode

The correct answer is B. It proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors.

TAXII, or Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information, is a standard protocol for sharing cyber threat intelligence in a standardized, automated, and secure manner. TAXII defines how cyber threat information can be shared via services and message exchanges, such as discovery, collection management, inbox, and poll. TAXII is designed to support STIX, or Structured Threat Information eXpression, which is a standardized language for describing cyber threat information in a readable and consistent format. Together, STIX and TAXII form a framework for sharing and using threat intelligence, creating an open-source platform that allows users to search through records containing attack vectors details such as malicious IP addresses, malware signatures, and threat actors123.

The importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program is that it proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors. By using TAXII, organizations can exchange cyber threat information with various entities, such as security vendors, government agencies, industry associations, or trusted groups. TAXII enables different sharing models, such as hub and spoke, source/subscriber, or peer-to-peer, depending on the needs and preferences of the information producers and consumers. TAXII also supports different levels of access control, encryption, and authentication to ensure the security and privacy of the shared information123.

By implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program, organizations can benefit from the following advantages:

They can receive timely and relevant information about the latest threats and vulnerabilities that may affect their systems or networks.

They can leverage the collective knowledge and experience of other organizations that have faced similar or related threats.

They can improve their situational awareness and threat detection capabilities by correlating and analyzing the shared information.

They can enhance their incident response and mitigation strategies by applying the best practices and recommendations from the shared information.

They can contribute to the overall improvement of cyber security by sharing their own insights and feedback with other organizations123.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program.

Option A is incorrect because TAXII does not provide a structured way to gain information about insider threats. Insider threats are malicious activities conducted by authorized users within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners. Insider threats can be detected by using various methods, such as user behavior analysis, data loss prevention, or anomaly detection. However,TAXII is not designed to collect or share information about insider threats specifically. TAXII is more focused on external threats that originate from outside sources, such as hackers, cybercriminals, or nation-states4.

Option C is incorrect because TAXII does not exchange messages in the most cost-effective way and requires little maintenance once implemented. TAXII is a protocol that defines how messages are exchanged, but it does not specify the cost or maintenance of the exchange. The cost and maintenance of implementing TAXII depend on various factors, such as the type and number of services used, the volume and frequency of data exchanged, the security and reliability requirements of the exchange, and the availability and compatibility of existing tools and platforms. Implementing TAXII may require significant resources and efforts from both the information producers and consumers to ensure its functionality and performance5.

Option D is incorrect because TAXII is not a semi-automated solution to gather threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector. TAXII is a fully automated solution that enables the exchange of threat intelligence among various entities across different sectors. TAXII does not target or collect information about specific competitors in the same sector. Rather, it aims to foster collaboration and cooperation among organizations that share common interests or goals in cyber security. Moreover, gathering threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector may raise ethical and legal issues that are beyond the scope of TAXII.

Command and control (C2) is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 enables the adversary to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels. C2 allows the adversary to maintain persistence, exfiltrate data, execute commands, deliver payloads, or spread to other systems or networks.

A Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) integrates security measures at each stage of development to reduce vulnerabilities and improve the overall security of the software. This is essential for minimizing risks related to software usage and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements, which is particularly important for organizations handling sensitive data. As per CompTIA standards, a Secure SDLC helps prevent security breaches and protects both the organization and its users from potential harm. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe the primary goals of a Secure SDLC, which primarily centers on risk reduction and regulatory compliance.

The correct answer is A. XML.

STIX and OpenloC are two standards for representing and exchanging cyber threat intelligence (CTI) information. STIX stands for Structured Threat Information Expression and OpenloC stands for Open Location and Identity Coordinates. Both standards use XML as the underlying data format to encode the information in a structured and machine-readable way. XML stands for Extensible Markup Language and it is a widely used standard for defining and exchanging data on the web. XML uses tags, attributes, and elements to describe the structure and meaning of the data. XML is also human-readable, as it uses plain text and follows a hierarchical and nested structure.

XML is not the only format that can be used to make STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines, but it is the most common and widely supported one. Other formats that can be used include JSON, CSV, or PDF, depending on the use case and the preferences of the information producers and consumers. However, XML has some advantages over other formats, such as:

XML is more expressive and flexible than JSON or CSV, as it can define complex data types, schemas, namespaces, and validation rules.

XML is more standardized and interoperable than PDF, as it can be easily parsed, transformed, validated, and queried by various tools and languages.

XML is more compatible with existing CTI standards and tools than other formats, as it is the basis for STIX 1.x, TAXII 1.x, MAEC, CybOX, OVAL, and others.

Adding the SHA-256 hash of a legitimate Microsoft-signed binary like svchost.exe to detection signatures would result in the indicator firing on the majority of Windows devices. Svchost.exe is a common and legitimate system process used by Windows, and using its hash as an indicator ofcompromise (IOC) would generate numerous false positives, as it would match the legitimate instances of svchost.exe running on all Windows systems.

SOAR stands for security orchestration, automation, and response, which is a term that describes a set of tools, technologies, or platforms that can help streamline, standardize, and automate security operations and incident response processes and tasks. SOAR can help minimize human engagement and aid in process improvement in security operations by reducing manual work, human errors, response time, or complexity. SOAR can also help enhance collaboration, coordination, efficiency, or effectiveness of security operations and incident response teams.

The Command and Control stage of the Cyber Kill Chain describes the communication between the attacker and the compromised system. The attacker may use this channel to send commands, receive data, or update malware. If the analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked, it may indicate that the attacker has established a command and control channel and bypassed the security controls. References: Cyber Kill Chain® | Lockheed Martin

Attack simulationsproviderealistic, hands-on scenariosthat mirror true incidents, allowing SOC analysts topractice detection, analysis, and response skillsunder real-world pressure. These simulations are crucial for developing and reinforcing SOC procedures and incident workflows.

Phishing assessments (A)are targeted, limited training.

OpenVAS (B)is a vulnerability scanner, not a training tool.

SOAR (D)is a response automation tool.

Honeypots (E)help observe attacker behavior, but aren't training-focused.

????Reference:

CS0-003 Objectives 3.3 – Incident Response Training

Mya Heath All-in-One – Chapter 14: Post-Incident Activities and Training

Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to log in with a single ID and password to access multiple applications. It eliminates the need for different passwords for various internal applications, streamlining the authentication process.

Federation is a system of trust between two parties for the purpose of authenticating users and conveying information needed to authorize their access to resources. By using federation, a user can use one set of credentials to access multiple domains that trust each other.

Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer that allows analysts to capture and inspect data packets traveling through a network. This makes it ideal for investigating unusual network activity, as it provides detailed insights into the nature and content of network traffic. In this case, Wireshark can help identify potentially malicious packets and understand the nature of the observed traffic. Options A (WAF) and C (EDR) are primarily used for monitoring and protecting web applications and endpoints, respectively, and Nmap (D) is typically used for network discovery and mapping, not detailed traffic analysis. According to CompTIA CySA+, packet analysis tools like Wireshark are invaluable for deep-dive investigations into network anomalies.

An important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident is to identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures. The lessons-learned step is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents

Thechain of custodyis a documented history that tracks how evidence is handled, collected, transported, and preserved at every stage of the forensic investigation. If a gap exists in the record of who transferred or accessed the evidence, it could call into question the integrity and admissibility of the evidence​.

Validating data integrity (Option A)refers to ensuring that the forensic image is identical to the original data, often using cryptographic hashing, but it does not address procedural gaps in documentation.

Preservation (Option B)involves protecting the original evidence from modification or loss but does not include logging transfers of custody.

Legal hold (Option C)refers to a requirement to preserve data for legal proceedings, which is different from tracking evidence handling​.

Thus, the correct answer isD, as chain of custody directly relates to tracking who had access to the evidence and when​.

A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves testing possible incident scenarios and how to react properly, without actually performing any actions or using any resources. A tabletop exercise is usually conducted by a facilitator who presents a realistic scenario to a group of participants, such as a cyberattack, a natural disaster, or a data breach. The participants then discuss and evaluatetheir roles, responsibilities, plans, procedures, and policies for responding to the incident, as well as the potential impacts and outcomes. A tabletop exercise can help identify strengths and weaknesses in the incident response plan, improve communication and coordination among the stakeholders, raise awareness and preparedness for potential incidents, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement.

According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official References: https://www.first.org/cvss/

The security analyst is validating a Local File Inclusion (LFI) vulnerability, as indicated by the “/…/…/…/” in the GET request which is a common indicator of directory traversal attempts associated with LFI. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: SQL injection involves injecting malicious SQL statements into a database query; XSS involves injecting malicious scripts into a web page; CSRF involves tricking a user into performing an unwanted action on a web application.

The endpoint log entry shows that a new account named “admin” has been created on a Windows system with a local group membership of “Administrators”. This indicates that a new account has been introduced on the system with administrative privileges. This could be a sign of malicious activity, such as privilege escalation or backdoor creation, by an attacker who has compromised the system.

Mean time to contain is the metric that the cybersecurity team lead should include in the weekly executive briefs, as it measures how long it takes to stop the spread of malware that enters the network. Mean time to contain is the average time it takes to isolate and neutralize an incident or a threat, such as malware, from the time it is detected. Mean time to contain is an important metric for evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process, as well as the potential impact and damage of the incident or threat. A lower mean time to contain indicates a faster and more successful response, which can reduce the risk and cost of the incident or threat. Mean time to contain can also be compared with other metrics, such as mean time to detect or mean time to remediate, to identify gaps or areas for improvement in the incident response process. 

The lessons-learned register is an essential document that captures insights and feedback from past exercises or incidents, highlighting what went well and what did not. By utilizing this register, the SOC manager can identify specific areas for improvement and develop actionable steps to enhance future response efforts. According to CompTIA’s CySA+ and Security+ guidance, lessons learned fromtabletop exercises are crucial for iterative improvements in an incident response plan. Options A, B, and C are useful resources, but the lessons-learned register specifically focuses on reflection and improvement, which is the primary objective in this context.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solutions are implemented to streamline security operations and improve efficiency. Key benefits include:

C. Reduce repetitive tasks: SOAR solutions automate routine and repetitive tasks, which helps reduce analyst workload and minimize human error.

F. Generate reports and metrics: SOAR platforms can automatically generate comprehensive reports and performance metrics, allowing organizations to track incident response times, analyze trends, and optimize security processes.

Other options are less relevant to the core functions of SOAR:

A. Minimize security attacks: While SOAR can aid in quicker response, it does not directly minimize the occurrence of attacks.

B. Itemize tasks for approval: Task itemization for approval is more relevant to project management tools.

D. Minimize setup complexity: SOAR solutions often require significant setup and integration with existing tools.

E. Define a security strategy: SOAR is more focused on automating response rather than strategy definition.

Exploit code maturity in the CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics refers to the reliability and availability of exploit code for a vulnerability. Public availability of exploit code increases the exploit code maturity score.

The availability of exploit code affects the 'Exploit Code Maturity' metric in CVSS v.3.1. This metric evaluates the level of maturity of the exploit that targets the vulnerability. When exploit code is readily available, it suggests a higher level of maturity, indicating that the exploit is more reliable and easier to use.

The one-liner script is utilizing JavaScript to execute a PowerShell command that downloads and runs a script from an external source, indicating the use of custom malware to download an additional script. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156.

The function that would help the analyst identify IP addresses from the same country is:

function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo “$1 | $info” }

This function takes an IP address as an argument and uses the geoiplookup command to get the geographic location information associated with the IP address, such as the country name, country code, region, city, or latitude and longitude. The function then prints the IP address and the geographic location information, which can help identify any IP addresses that belong to the same country. 

Performing a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios is the best way to test the changes to the BC and DR plans without any impact to the business, as it is a low-cost and low-risk method of exercising the plans and identifying any gaps or issues. A tabletop drill is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves gathering key personnel from different departments and roles and discussing how they would respond to a hypothetical incident scenario. A tabletop drill does not involve any actual simulation or disruption of the systems or processes, but rather relies on verbal communication and documentation review. A tabletop drill can help to ensure that everyone is familiar with the BC/DR plans, that the plans reflect the current state of the organization, and that the plans are consistent and coordinated across different functions. The other options are not as suitable as performing a tabletop drill, as they involve more cost, risk, or impact to the business. Simulating an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves creating an actual disruption or outage of a critical system or process, and observing how the organization responds and recovers. This type of exercise can provide a realistic assessment of the BC/DR capabilities, but it can also cause significant impact to the business operations, customers, and reputation. Migrating active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves switching over from one system or site to another, and verifying that the backup system or site can support the normal operations. This type of exercise can help to validate the functionality and performance of the backup system or site, but it can also incur high costs, complexity, and potential errors or failures. Comparing the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents is a type of BC/DR activity that involves reviewing past experiences and outcomes, and identifying best practices or improvement opportunities. This activity can help to update and refine the BC/DR plans, but it does not test or validate them in a simulated or actual scenario

ISO 27001 is an international standard that establishes a framework for implementing, maintaining, and improving an information security management system (ISMS). It helps organizations demonstrate their commitment to protecting their data and complying with various regulations and best practices. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: PCI DSS is a standard that focuses on protecting payment card data; COBIT is a framework that provides guidance on governance and management of enterprise IT; ITIL is a framework that provides guidance on service management and delivery.

One of the best actions to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future is to schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred, what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. This review is also known as a lessons learned session or an after-action report. The purpose of this review is to identify the root causes of the incident, evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response process, document any gaps or weaknesses in the security controls, and recommend corrective actions or preventive measures for future incidents. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/

Thegoal of forensic analysisin a post-incident scenario is to identify theroot causeof the incident. This helps prevent future occurrences and enhances the security posture of the organization​.

Option A (Full picture of risks)is more aligned with a risk assessment rather than forensic analysis.

Option B (Notifying law enforcement)depends on the situation, but forensic analysis is performed even when legal action is not involved.

Option C (Further containment)is part of incident response, but forensic analysis happensaftercontainment.

Thus,D is the correct answer, asdetermining root cause is the key objective of forensic analysis​.

Reimaging the device is the most effective way to eliminate persistent malware because some sophisticated malware, such as rootkits and firmware-level threats, can survive traditional scans and removals.

If a system keeps getting reinfected after cleaning, it may indicate a deeply embedded persistent threat, possibly in:

The Master Boot Record (MBR) or EFI firmware.

A compromised system restore point.

A hidden backdoor left by the malware.

Why Not Other Options?

A (Update and scan in safe mode) → Might help, but if malware is persistent, it will likely return.

C (Upgrade OS) → Does not necessarily remove malware; some malware survives OS upgrades.

D (Secondary scanner) → Useful for detection but does not guarantee complete removal.

Best Practice:

Replace the hard drive to eliminate firmware-level infections.

Reimage the system from a known-good source.

Update the OS and security patches before reconnecting to the network.

TheDiamond Model of Intrusion Analysisconsists offour core attributes:

Adversary– The threat actor behind the attack.

Capability– The tools and techniques used.

Infrastructure– The systems used by the adversary (e.g., botnets, C2 servers).

Victim– The target of the attack​.

Option A (Delivery)andOption B (Weaponization)are part of theCyber Kill Chain, not the Diamond Model.

Option C (Command and control)is an attack phase butnot a core attribute of the Diamond Model.

Option D (Capability) is correct, as it represents the tools and attack methods used by adversaries.

Thus,D is the correct answer.

The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1

The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.

Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636.

Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23

Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.

Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362

The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK.

MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and data. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements .

The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) © is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups.

Proprietary systems are systems that are owned and controlled by a specific vendor or manufacturer, and that use proprietary standards or protocols that are not compatible with other systems. Proprietary systems can pose a challenge for vulnerability management, as they may not allow users to access or modify their configuration, update their software, or patch their vulnerabilities. In this case, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have access to. This indicates that these systems and associated vulnerabilities are examples of proprietary systems as inhibitors to remediation

After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of the compromise. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a public repository of standardized identifiers and descriptions for common cybersecurity vulnerabilities. It helps security analysts to identify, prioritize, and report on the most critical vulnerabilities in their systems and applications. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) is a collection of information and analysis on current and emerging cyber threats; Cyber Analytics Repository (CAR) is a knowledge base of analytics developed by MITRE based on the ATT&CK adversary model; ATT&CK is a globally-accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of various cybersecurity frameworks and standards, such as CVE, CTI, CAR, and ATT&CK, in chapter 1. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each framework and standard, such as CVE, which provides a common language for describing and sharing information about vulnerabilities1, page 28. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

Digital signatures ensure the integrity and non-repudiation of emails. Integrity ensures that the message has not been altered in transit, as the digital signature would be invalidated if the content were tampered with. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender cannot deny having sent the email, as the digital signature is unique to their identity. These principles are crucial for legal validity, as recommended by CompTIA Security+ standards. Confidentiality (A) and privacy (C) relate to encryption, while authorization (F) and anonymity (D) are unrelated to the primary purpose of digital signatures in this context.

The best action that the SOC manager can recommend to help ensure new employees are accountable for following the company policy is to require all new employees to sign a user agreement to acknowledge the company security policy. A user agreement is a document that defines the rights and responsibilities of the users regarding the use of the company’s systems, networks, or resources, as well as the consequences of violating the company’s security policy. Signing a user agreement can help ensure new employees are aware of and agree to comply with the company security policy, as well as hold them accountable for any breaches or incidents caused by their actions or inactions.

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that helps analysts to understand the relationships between the adversary, the victim, the infrastructure, and the capability involved in an attack. It also enables analytical pivoting, which is the process of moving from one piece of information to another related one, and identifies knowledge gaps that need further investigation. 

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) platforms help automate and orchestrate incident response tasks, including phishing triage.

SOAR reduces triage time by automatically:

Parsing phishing emails (checking headers, links, attachments).

Running automated playbooks to check for known malicious indicators.

Escalating real threats while dismissing false positives.

Why Not Other Options?

B (Increase security awareness) → Helps prevent phishing but does NOT reduce triage time.

C (Implement EDR) → EDR is useful for endpoint protection but does NOT specifically reduce phishing triage time.

D (Install a "Report Phishing" button) → Helps report phishing but does NOT automate the triage process.

The code snippet provided suggests an SQL injection vulnerability, indicated by the use of "1=1," which is a common SQL injection technique to bypass authentication. To mitigate this risk, validating user input is the most effective control, as it ensures that any input is properly sanitized and escapes potentially malicious characters before interacting with the database. This is a key principle from CompTIA Security+ guidelines on secure coding practices. Options A and B are unrelated to the vulnerability type here, and while access control (Option C) is generally good practice, it does not specifically prevent SQL injection.

 The first thing that must be done when starting an investigation is to secure the scene. Securing the scene involves isolating and protecting the area where the incident occurred, as well as any potential evidence or witnesses. Securing the scene can help prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence, as well as any interference or obstruction of the investigation.

The correct answer is C. Impact.

The impact metric is the best way to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The impact metric quantifies the consequences of the outage in terms of lost revenue, productivity, reputation, customer satisfaction, or other relevant factors. The impact metric can help prioritize the recovery efforts and justify the resources needed to restore the service1.

The other options are not the best ways to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The timeline metric (A) measures the duration and frequency of the outage, but not its effects. The evidence metric (B) measures the sources and types of data that can be used to investigate and analyze the outage, but not its effects. The scope metric (D) measures the extent and severity of the outage, but not its effects.

Mean time to detect (MTTD) is a metric that measures the average time it takes for an organization to discover or detect an incident. It is a key performance indicator in incident management and a measure of incident response capabilities. A low MTTD indicates that the organization can quickly identify security threats and minimize their impact12.

Using a vendor-provided API to automate pulling logs in real-time is the best option for improving the efficiency of security operations when the financial application does not allow event logging to send to the corporate SIEM. This approach ensures that logs are consistently and promptly integrated into the security monitoring process without manual intervention, enhancing the overall effectiveness of security operations.

The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:

TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No

This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.

The best way to prevent network printers from printing pages during a vulnerability scan is to create a tailored scan for the printer subnet that excludes the ports and services that trigger the printing behavior. The other options are not effective for this purpose: performing non-credentialed scans may not reduce the impact on the printers; ignoring embedded web server ports may not cover all the possible ports that cause printing; increasing the threshold length of the scan timeout may not prevent the printing from occurring.

SVR02 has a CVSS score of 7.1 and is exploitable, making itthe highest priority for remediation​.

SVR01 (CVSS 8.9) is not exploitable, so it is a lower risk.

SVR03 (CVSS 3.5) is exploitablebut has alower severitythan SVR02.

SVR04 (CVSS 6.7) is not exploitable, reducing its urgency.

Thus,B (SVR02) is the correct answer, as it presentsthe highest immediate risk​.

Deploying EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities and using micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers are two compensating controls that will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements. A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or an attack when the primary control is not feasible or effective. EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a tool that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual response capabilities. EDR can help contain the adversary by detecting and blocking their actions, such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, privilege escalation, or command execution. Micro segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments based on policies and rules, and applies granular access controls to each segment. Micro segmentation can help contain the adversary by isolating the web and database servers from other parts of the network, and limiting the traffic that can flow between them. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

The most likely explanation for this traffic pattern is C2 beaconing activity. C2 stands for command and control, which is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 beaconing activity is a type of network traffic that indicates a compromised system is sending periodic messages or signals to an attacker’s system using various protocols, such as HTTP(S), DNS, ICMP, or UDP. C2 beaconingactivity can enable the attacker to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels.

Weaponization is a factor that describes how an adversary develops or acquires an exploit or payload that can take advantage of a vulnerability and deliver a malicious effect. Weaponization can increase the severity or impact of a vulnerability, as it makes it easier or more likely for an attacker to exploit it successfully and cause damage or harm. Weaponization can also indicate the level of sophistication or motivation of an attacker, as well as the availability or popularity of an exploit or payload in the cyber threat landscape. In this case, an older CVE with a vulnerability score of 7.1 was elevated to a score of 9.8 due to a widely available exploit being used to deliver ransomware. This indicates that weaponization was the reason for this escalation. 

The signature of the malware is a unique identifier that can be used to compare it with known malware samples and their behaviors. Open-source threat intelligence sources provide information on various types of malware, their indicators of compromise, and their mitigation strategies. By cross-referencing the signature with these sources, the analyst can determine the type of malware and its telemetry. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: configuring the EDR to perform a full scan may not provide additional information on the malware type; transferring the malware to a sandbox environment may expose the analyst to further risks; logging in to the affected systems and running netstat may not reveal the malware activity.

The NTP configuration on each system should be checked first, as it is essential for ensuring accurate and consistent time stamps across different systems. NTP is the Network Time Protocol, which is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. NTP uses a hierarchical system of time sources, where each level is assigned a stratum number. The most accurate time sources, such as atomic clocks or GPS receivers, are at stratum 0, and the devices that synchronize with them are at stratum 1, and so on. NTP clients can query multiple NTP servers and use algorithms to select the best time source and adjust their clocks accordingly1. If the NTP configuration is not consistent or correct on each system, the time stamps of the logs and events may differ, making it difficult to correlate incidents across different systems. This can affect the security analysis and correlation of events, as well as the compliance and auditing of the network23. References: How the Windows Time Service Works, Time Synchronization - All You Need To Know, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) and SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) are solutions that can help centralize the workload for the internal security team by collecting, correlating, and analyzing alerts from different sources, such as EDR. SOAR can also automate and streamline incident response workflows, while SIEM can provide dashboards and reports for security monitoring and compliance. References: What is EDR? Endpoint Detection & Response, How Does the Cyber Kill Chain Protect Against Attacks?; What is EDR Solution?, EDR solutions secure diverse endpoints through central monitoring

The XML file containsJavaScript embedded within a <description> tagthat executes an alert message, which is a commonCross-Site Scripting (XSS)attack vector. The issue occurs becausethe XML schema does not restrict the input to safe characters, allowingarbitrary script executionwhen the XML file is processed by a vulnerable application.

Solution: Implement Input Validation Using an XML Schema Constraint

Option Benforces awhitelist approachby allowingonly alphanumeric characters and spaces([a-zA-Z 0-9]*).

This prevents the inclusion ofmalicious JavaScript or special characterssuch as <, >, or &, which are required for XSS injection​.

Why are the other options incorrect?

Option A: Restricts input to aSocial Security Number (SSN) format ([0-9]{3}-[0-9]{2}-[0-9]{4}). While it prevents JavaScript injection, it is too restrictive and would break legitimate text-based content in the XML.

Option C: Restricts input toonly numeric values ([0-9]*), preventing JavaScript injection but also breaking legitimate non-numeric content in the field.

Option D: Restricts input to asingle positive integer, which does not align with the expected text-based content.

Thus,Option Bis the correct answer, as it enforces proper input validation while still allowing expected text input​.

Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, and could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. Official References:

https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/

https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:To safely analyze malware while avoiding unintended disclosure of company information, it is best to use a local sandbox in a microsegmented environment. Here’s why:

A. Upload the malware to the VirusTotal website

Risk: VirusTotal and similar services are public and may share uploaded files with other security vendors, potentially exposing proprietary or sensitive information.

B. Share the malware with the EDR provider

Limitation: While EDR providers may offer insight, sharing potentially sensitive malware samples externally still introduces risk of disclosure or data leaks.

C. Hire an external consultant to perform the analysis

Cost and Risk: Hiring an external consultant can be costly and may introduce risks related to third-party handling of sensitive data. Although it may provide insights, this is typically not the most efficient initial response.

D. Use a local sandbox in a microsegmented environment

Explanation: A local sandbox provides a secure, isolated environment for malware analysis without exposing sensitive data outside the organization. Microsegmentation enhances security by further isolating the sandbox from the network, preventing lateral movement if the malware attempts to communicate externally.

tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or thedestination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers

https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/

When a patch cannot be deployed due to conflicting routine system upgrades, updating the risk register and requesting a change to the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a practical approach. It allows for re-evaluation of the risk and adjustment of the SLA to reflect the current situation.

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that describes the relationship between four components of a cyberattack: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. It helps analysts understand the behavior and motivation of threat actors, as well as the tools and methods they use to compromise their targets12. References: Main Analytical Frameworks for Cyber Threat Intelligence, section 4; Strategies, tools, and frameworks for building an effective threat intelligence team, section 3.

This VM has a public IP and an open port 80, which violates the company’s security requirements of no public IPs and no insecure ports/protocols. It also exposes the VM to potential attacks from the internet. This VM should be updated first to use a private IP and close the port 80, or use a secure protocol such as HTTPS.

References[CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition], Chapter 2: Cloud and Hybrid Environments, page 67.[What is a Public IP Address?][What is Port 80?]

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is used to detect vulnerabilities in running applications, including common issues like SQL injection, FRI, XSS, etc. It aligns with the goal of implementing security by design.

Searching for other mail users who have received the same file is the best activity to perform next, as it helps to identify and contain the scope of the ransomware attack and prevent further damage. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a system and demands payment for their decryption. Ransomware can spread through phishing emails that contain malicious attachments or links that download the ransomware. By searching for other mail users who have received the same file, the analyst can alert them not to open it, delete it from their inboxes, and scan their systems for any signs of infection. The other activities are not as urgent or effective as searching for other mail users who have received the same file, as they do not address the immediate threat of ransomware spreading or affecting more systems. Wiping the computer and reinstalling software may restore the functionality of the affected workstation, but it will also erase any evidence of the ransomware attack and make recovery of encrypted files impossible. Shutting down the email server and quarantining it from the network may stop the delivery of more phishing emails, but it will also disrupt normal communication and operations for the organization. Acquiring a bit-level image of the affected workstation may preserve the evidence of the ransomware attack, but it will not help to stop or remove the ransomware or decrypt the files.

RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program’s execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack? Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of …3

A tabletop exercise is the most likely action that an analyst would perform after an incident has been investigated. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential incident scenario that involves the key stakeholders and decision-makers of the organization. The purpose of a tabletop exercise is to evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response plan, identify the gaps and weaknesses in the plan, and improve the communication and coordination among the incident response team and other parties. A tabletop exercise can help the analyst to learn from the incident investigation, test the assumptions and recommendations made during the investigation, and enhance the preparedness and resilience of the organization for future incidents12. Risk assessment, root cause analysis, and incident response plan are all actions that an analyst would perform before or during an incident investigation, not after. Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization. Root cause analysis is the method of finding the underlying or fundamental causes of an incident. Incident response plan is the document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for responding to an incident345. References: Tabletop Exercises: Six Scenarios to Help Prepare Your Cybersecurity Team, Tabletop Exercises for Incident Response - SANS Institute, Risk Assessment - NIST, Root Cause Analysis - OWASP, Incident Response Plan | Ready.gov

Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.

Making a forensic image of the device and creating a SRA-I hash is the best step to preserve evidence, as it creates an exact copy of the device’s data and verifies its integrity. A forensic image is a bit-by-bit copy of the device’s storage media, which preserves all the information on the device, including deleted or hidden files. A SRA-I hash is a cryptographic value that is calculated from the forensic image, which can be used to prove that the image has not been altered or tampered with. The other options are not as effective as making a forensic image and creating a SRA-I hash, as they may not capture all the relevant data, or they may not provide sufficient verification of the evidence’s authenticity. Official References:

https://www.sans.org/blog/forensics-101-acquiring-an-image-with-ftk-imager/

https://swailescomputerforensics.com/digital-forensics-imaging-hash-value/

The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification.

Vulnerability B is the vulnerability that the analyst should be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email. Vulnerability B is a remote code execution vulnerability in Microsoft Outlook that allows an attacker to run arbitrary code on the target system by sending a specially crafted email message. This vulnerability is very dangerous, as it does not require any user interaction or attachment opening to trigger the exploit. The attacker only needs to send an email to the victim’s Outlook account, and the code will execute automatically when Outlook connectsto the Exchange server. This vulnerability has a high severity rating of 9.8 out of 10, and it affects all supported versions of Outlook. Therefore, the analyst should prioritize patching this vulnerability as soon as possible to prevent potential compromise of the workstations.

The correct answer is A. Address space layout randomization.

Address space layout randomization (ASLR) is a security control that randomizes the memory address space of a process, making it harder for an attacker to exploit memory-based vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows1. ASLR can also prevent a security analyst from finding the proper memory address of a piece of malicious code, as the memory address changes every time the process runs2.

The other options are not the best explanations for why the memory address changes every time the process runs. Data execution prevention (B) is a security control that prevents code from being executed in certain memory regions, such as the stack or the heap3. Stack canary © is a security technique that places a random value on the stack before a function’s return address, to detect and prevent stack buffer overflows. Code obfuscation (D) is a technique that modifies the source code or binary of a program to make it more difficult to understand or reverse engineer. These techniques do not affect the memory address space of a process, but rather the execution or analysis of the code.

The discovery of unapproved accounts accessing shared data, along with data discrepancies, strongly indicates unauthorized changes.

Indicators of Unauthorized Changes:

Unexpected user permissions found during audits​.

Modified or deleted data without proper documentation.

Altered system or security configurations, allowing unintended access.

Why Not Other Options?

A. Filesystem Anomaly: This refers to unexpected behavior in the file structure, such as corrupt metadata or missing files, rather than unauthorized user access.

B. Illegal Software: Would involve unlicensed or unauthorized applications, not unauthorized file modifications.

D. Data Exfiltration: If data was removed, it might be exfiltration, but in this case, data modifications were detected instead.

To prevent unauthorized changes, security teams should use:

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) to detect unauthorized modifications.

Access control audits to verify correct user permissions.

SIEM tools to analyze logs for anomalies.

Mitigate is the best term to describe the risk management principle that the company is exercising, as it means to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. By implementing a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities, the company is mitigating the threat of cyberattacks that could exploit those vulnerabilities and compromise the security or functionality of the systems. The other terms are not as accurate as mitigate, as they describe different risk management principles. Transfer means to shift theresponsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as an insurer or a contractor. Accept means to acknowledge the existence of a risk and decide not to take any action to reduce it, usually because the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high. Avoid means to eliminate the possibility of a risk by changing the plans or activities that could cause it, such as cancelling a project or discontinuing a service.

Webhooksenable automatic and event-driven interactions between applications. In the context of code repositories and vulnerability scanning, webhooksautomate the scanning processevery time new code is committed. Thisensures continuous security coveragewithout relying on manual triggers, thereby embedding security checks into the development lifecycle efficiently. This automation leads to improved coverage and faster identification of vulnerabilities at the earliest stage possible in the DevSecOps pipeline.

Determining the asset value of each system is the best action to perform first, as it helps to categorize and prioritize the systems based on the sensitivity of the data they host. The asset value is a measure of how important a system is to the organization, in terms of its financial, operational, or reputational impact. The asset value can help the security analyst to assign a risk level and a protection level to each system, and to allocate resources accordingly. The other actions are not as effective as determining the asset value, as they do not directly address the goal of promoting confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data. Interviewing the users who access these systems may provide some insight into how the systems are used and what data they contain, but it may not reflect the actual value or sensitivity of the data from an organizational perspective. Scanning the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist may help to identify and remediate some security issues, but it does not help to categorize or prioritize the systems based on their data sensitivity. Configuring alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits may help to detect and respond to some emerging threats, but it does not help to protect the systems based on their data sensitivity.

Developing an organization's communication plans is crucial to ensure that incidents, especially those involving sensitive data like PH (Protected Health) data, are promptly reported to the relevant regulatory agencies. This is essential for compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, which often mandate timely notification of data breaches. Effective communication plans help the organization manage the breach response process, mitigate potential legal penalties, and maintain transparency with regulatory bodies.

This is a type of web application vulnerability called cross-site scripting (XSS), which allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users. XSS can be used to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or other sensitive information, or to perform actions on behalf of the victim.

Input sanitization is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by checking and filtering the user input before processing it. Input sanitization can remove or encode any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Input sanitization can also validate the input against a predefined format or range of values, and reject any input that does not match.

Output encoding is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by encoding the output before sending it to the browser. Output encoding can convert any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser into harmless entities, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Output encoding can also escape any special characters that may have a different meaning in different contexts, such as , /, or ;.

Code obfuscation is a technique that makes the source code of a web application more difficult to read and understand by humans. Code obfuscation can use techniques such as renaming variables and functions, removing comments and whitespace, replacing literals with expressions, or adding dummy code. Code obfuscation can help protect the intellectual property and trade secrets of a web application, but it does not prevent XSS attacks.

The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable.

The command in question involves an encoded PowerShell command, which is typically used by attackers to obfuscate malicious scripts. To decode and understand the payload, one would need to decode the base64 encoded string. This is why option A is the correct answer, as 'base64 -d' is a command used to decode data encoded with base64. This process will reveal the plaintext of the encoded command, which can then be analyzed to understand the actions that the attacker was attempting to perform. Option B is risky and not advised without a controlled and isolated environment. Option C is not safe because executing unknown or suspicious code with administrator privileges could cause harm to the system or network. Option D also poses a risk of executing potentially harmful code on an analyst’s workstation.

MITRE ATT&CK is a framework and knowledge base that describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by various adversaries in cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK can help security analysts compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization, as well as identify patterns, gaps, or trends in adversary behavior. MITRE ATT&CK can also help security analysts improve threat detection, analysis, and response capabilities, as well as share threat intelligence with other organizations or communities

A social engineering attack is a type of cyberattack that relies on manipulating human psychology rather than exploiting technical vulnerabilities. A social engineering attack may involve deceiving, persuading, or coercing users into performing actions that benefit the attacker, such as clicking on malicious links, divulging sensitive information, or granting access to restricted resources. An obfuscated link is a link that has been disguised or altered to hide its true destination or purpose. Obfuscated links are often used by attackers to trick users into visiting malicious websites or downloading malware. In this case, an incident response analyst notices multiple emails traversing the network that target only the administrators of the company. The email contains a concealed URL that leads to an unknown website in another country. This indicates that the analyst is witnessing a social engineering attack using obfuscated links.

OWASP ZAP (Zed Attack Proxy) is a tool recommended for quickly testing web applications for vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, path traversal, and cross-site scripting. It is an open-source web application security scanner that helps identify security issues in web applications during the development and testing phases.

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a tool that can prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data in motion, in use, or at rest.

The suspicious line in the web server logs is an attempt to execute a command on the server, indicating a command injection attack.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 197; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 205.

In a root cause analysis following unauthorized access, the initial step is usually to review relevant log files. These logs can provide critical information about how and when the attacker gained access.

The first step in a root cause analysis after a data breach is typically to review the logs. This helps the analyst understand how the attacker gained access by providing a detailed record of all events, including unauthorized or abnormal activities. Documenting the incident, interviewing employees, and identifying immediate containment actions are important steps, but they usually follow the initial log review.

The vulnerability is network based is the correct attribute that describes this vulnerability, as it can be inferred from the CVSS string. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that assigns numerical scores and ratings to vulnerabilities based on their characteristics and severity. The CVSS string consists of several metrics that define different aspects of the vulnerability, such as the attack vector, the attack complexity, the privileges required, the user interaction, the scope, and the impact on confidentiality, integrity and availability. The first metric in the CVSS string is the attack vector (AV), which indicates how the vulnerability can be exploited. The value of AV in this case is N, which stands for network. This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection, without physical or logical access to the target system. Therefore, the vulnerability is network based. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://packitforwarding.com/index.php/2019/01/10/comptia-cysa-common-vulnerability-scoring-system-cvss/

The scanner is running in active mode, which is the cause of this issue. Active mode is a type of vulnerability scanning that sends probes or requests to the target systems to test their responses and identify potential vulnerabilities. Active mode can provide more accurate and comprehensive results, but it can also cause more network traffic, performance degradation, or system instability. In some cases, active mode can trigger denial-of-service (DoS) conditions or crash the target systems, especially if they are not configured to handle the scanning requests or if they have underlying vulnerabilities that can be exploited by the scanner12. Therefore, the analyst should use caution when performing active mode scanning, and avoid scanning business-critical or sensitive systems without proper authorization and preparation3. References: Vulnerability Scanning for my Server - Spiceworks Community, Negative Impacts of Automated Vulnerability Scanners and How … - Acunetix, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices

Testing is a crucial step in any change management process, as it ensures that the change is compatible with the existing systems and does not cause any errors or disruptions. In this case, the change management team failed to test the email client patch on Windows 11 devices, which resulted in a widespread issue for the users. Testing would have revealed the problem before the patch was deployed, and allowed the team to fix it or postpone the change.

The lessons learned process is the final stage of the incident management life cycle, where the incident team reviews the incident and evaluates the effectiveness of the response and the plans in place. The lessons learned report should include the who-what-when information and any recommendations for improvement123 References: 1: What is incident management? Steps, tips, and best practices 2: 5 Steps of the Incident Management Lifecycle | RSI Security 3: Navigating the Incident Response Life Cycle: A Comprehensive Guide

The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the certificate is renewed or replaced. Thiscan affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161.

Conducting regular code reviews using OWASP best practices is the most effective action to reduce risks associated with the application development. Code reviews are a systematic examination of the source code of an application to detect and fix errors, vulnerabilities, and weaknesses that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. Code reviews can help to improve the quality and security of the code, as well as to identify and remediate common security risks, such as insufficient logging capabilities. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a global nonprofit organization that provides free and open resources, tools, standards, and best practices for web application security. OWASP best practices for logging include following a common loggingformat and approach, logging relevant security events and data, protecting log data from unauthorized access or modification, and using log analysis and monitoring tools to detect and respond to security incidents. By following OWASP best practices for logging, developers can ensure that their web applications have sufficient and effective logging capabilities that can help to prevent, detect, and mitigate security threats.

Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware is the best action to perform to remediate the infected device, as it helps to ensure that the device is restored to a clean and secure state and that any traces of malware are removed. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of a hardware device, such as a motherboard, hard drive, or network card. Firmware can be updated or flashed to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Reimaging is a process of erasing and restoring the data on a storage device, such as a hard drive or a solid state drive, using an image file that contains a copy of the operating system, applications, settings, and files. Reimaging can help to recover from system failures, data corruption, or malware infections. Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware can help to remediate the infected device by removing any malicious code or configuration changes that may have been made by the malware, as well as restoring any missing or damaged files or settings that may have been affected by the malware. This can help to prevent further damage, data loss, or compromise of the device or the network. The other actions are not as effective or appropriate as updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware, as they do not address the root cause of the infection or ensure that the device is fully cleaned and secured. Installing an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst may help to detect and remove some types of malware, but it may not be able to catch all malware variants or remove them completely. It may also create conflicts or performance issues with other security tools or systems on the device. Configuring the system to use a proxy server for Internet access may help to filter or monitor some types of malicious traffic or requests, but it may not prevent or remove malware that has already infected the device or that uses other methods of communication or propagation. Deleting the user profile and restoring data from backup may help to recover some data or settings that may have been affected by the malware, but it may not remove malware that has infected other parts of the system or that has persisted on the device.

A social engineering attack is underway is the most likely explanation for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co, while the site’s standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company’s domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company’s VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company’s employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

A Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) is a formal agreement that outlines the roles and responsibilities of each party involved in a particular process or project, especially within security frameworks. In the context of cybersecurity, an MOU is commonly used to clarify and document the security responsibilities of different departments or entities involved. It helps ensure everyone understands their specific duties and contributions to security, which is crucial for coordination and risk management. According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, while options A, C, and D describe other forms of agreements, they do not capture the essential purpose of an MOU as accurately as option B does.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:To effectively prevent Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks, implementing appropriate security controls within the application code and at the network layer is critical. Here’s a breakdown of each option:

A. Implement an IPS in front of the web server

Explanation: Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) are primarily designed to detect and prevent network-based attacks, not application-layer vulnerabilities such as XSS. They do not specifically mitigate XSS threats effectively.

B. Enable MFA on the website

Explanation: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) strengthens user authentication but does not address XSS, which typically involves injecting malicious scripts rather than compromising user credentials.

C. Take the website offline until it is patched

While this might temporarily mitigate the risk, it is not a practical solution for ongoing operations, especially when effective preventative controls (e.g., WAF rules or code updates) can be implemented without disabling the service.

D. Implement a compensating control in the source code

Explanation: Implementing security controls at the code level is an effective way to mitigate XSS risks. This can involve proper input validation, output encoding, and utilizing libraries that sanitize user inputs. By addressing the root cause in the source code, developers prevent scripts from being injected or executed in the browser.

E. Configure TLS v1.3 on the website

Explanation: While TLS v1.3 secures the communication channel, it does not address XSS directly. XSS attacks manipulate client-side scripts, which TLS cannot prevent, as TLS only encrypts data in transit.

F. Fix the vulnerability using a virtual patch at the WAF

Explanation: Web Application Firewalls (WAFs) can mitigate XSS vulnerabilities by identifying and blocking malicious payloads. Virtual patching at the WAF level provides a temporary fix by preventing exploit attempts from reaching the application, giving developers time to implement a permanent fix in the source code.

The best resource to ensure secure configuration of cloud infrastructure is A. CIS Benchmarks. CIS Benchmarks are a set of prescriptive configuration recommendations for various technologies, including cloud providers, operating systems, network devices, and server software. They are developed by a global community of cybersecurity experts and help organizations protect their systems against threats more confidently1

PCI DSS, OWASP Top Ten, and ISO 27001 are also important standards for information security, but they are not focused on providing specific guidance for hardening cloud infrastructure. PCI DSS is a compliance scheme for payment card transactions, OWASP Top Ten is a list of common web application security risks, and ISO 27001 is a framework for establishing and maintaining an information security management system. These standards may have some relevance for cloud security, but they are not as comprehensive and detailed as CIS Benchmarks

Agent-based scansare runlocally on hostsvia installed agents, whichsignificantly reduces network trafficwhile allowing in-depth visibility and accurate scanning. They’re ideal for bandwidth-limited or sensitive networks.

Credentialed scans (A)still transmit data over the network.

Individual scans (B)is ambiguous and not a standard term.

Baseline scans (C)focus on policy compliance, not reducing traffic.

?Reference:

Chapple & Seidl – Vulnerability Management, Chapter 6: Scanning Techniques

CS0-003 Domain 2.1 – Vulnerability Scanning Methods

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) technology aggregates and analyzes activity from many different resources across your IT infrastructure. The description of correlating information from various sources and triggering notifications aligns with the capabilities of a SIEM system.

Abackdooris a deliberate vulnerability inserted into the code, often allowing unauthorized access.

Source code review (Option D)is the best way to detect malicious code before it is deployed to production.

SDLC training (Option A)is helpful but does not directly prevent the insertion of backdoors.

Dynamic analysis (Option B)detects vulnerabilities at runtime but may not always identify backdoors in code.

Debugging (Option C)is useful for troubleshooting but does not address security vulnerabilities.

????Reference:CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Official Study Guide, Secure Software Development Practices.

This is because scanning without admin privileges can limit the scope and accuracy of the vulnerability scan, and potentially miss some critical vulnerabilities that require higher privileges to detect. According to the OWASP Vulnerability Management Guide1, “scanning without administrative privileges will result in a large number of false negatives and an incomplete scan”. Therefore, the analyst should recommend addressing this issue to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified.

Aplaybookprovides astep-by-stepguide for handling specific types of incidents like ransomware, making it invaluable during triage. It outlines predefined procedures, aiding consistent and fast decision-making.

The incident response plan (A) provides high-level structure.

Lessons learned (B) applyafterthe incident.

Tabletop exercises (D) are training tools, not live guides.

????Reference: Chapple & Seidl, CySA+ Practice Tests, Incident Response, Chapter 3 – Playbooks and Procedures​.

????Objective: 3.1 - Apply incident response procedures based on an incident classification​.

Based on the list of hosts and their functions, DCEast01, which is a Domain Controller, would be the most pivotal in the distribution of an encryption binary via Group Policy. Domain Controllers are responsible for security and administrative policies within a Windows Domain. Group Policy is a feature of Windows that facilitates a wide range of advanced settings that administrators can use to control the working environment of user accounts and computer accounts. Group Policy can be used to deploy software, which in this case would be the encryption binary of the ransomware. SQL01 is a database server and unlikely to be used for this purpose. WK10-Sales07 and WK7-Plant01 are client machines, and HQAdmin9, although it is a network admin laptop, would not typically be used to distribute policies across a network.

D (4: HTTPS traffic to an external IP - 5.29.1.5)

The log entry shows an internal system (172.16.1.30) communicating with an external IP (5.29.1.5) overTCP 443 (HTTPS)usingBrowser.exe.

HTTPS traffic to an unknown external IP could indicate data exfiltration, as attackers often use encrypted channels to disguise stolen data transfers.

G (7: FTP traffic to an external backup server - bank.backup.com)

The log entry indicates that an internal machine (172.16.1.25) is transferring data tobank.backup.comusingFTP (port 21)andFileZilla.

FTP is a major concern because it is an outdated, unencrypted protocolthat can be exploited for data exfiltration. If unauthorized, this could be a serious data breach.

Other Options:

A (ARP traffic) → Not a concern(Just address resolution)

B (RPC Kerberos traffic) → Normal for authentication

C (SMB traffic) → Internal file sharing

**E (DNS traffic) → Common, though could be exfiltration in some cases, but not in this log)

F (WUS traffic) → Appears to be Windows Update Service traffic, likely legitimate

MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for the development of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, in government, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help security professionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensive framework of TTPs.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:The nmap scan results show that Telnet (port 23) is open. Telnet transmits data, including credentials, in plaintext, which is insecure and should be disabled to enhance security. Here’s an explanation of each option:

A. Disable all protocols that do not use encryption

Explanation: Disabling unencrypted protocols (such as Telnet) reduces exposure to man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks and credential sniffing. Telnet should be replaced with a secure protocol like SSH, which provides encryption for transmitted data.

B. Configure client certificates for domain services

Explanation: While client certificates enhance authentication security, they are more relevant to services like LDAP over SSL (port 636), which is already secure. This would not address the Telnet vulnerability.

C. Ensure that this system is behind a NGFW

Explanation: A Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) provides enhanced network security, but it may not mitigate the risks of unencrypted protocols if they are allowed internally.

D. Deploy a publicly trusted root CA for secure websites

Explanation: Public root CAs are used for website authentication and encryption, relevant only if this system is hosting a publicly accessible HTTPS service. It would not impact Telnet security.

The formal incident declaration is crucial to identify and document the staff who have the authority to declare an incident, ensuring that incidents are handled by authorized personnel. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) logs provide visibility into network traffic patterns and can help detect insecure or unusual connections. These logs will show if non-secure protocols are used, potentially revealing exposed credentials. According to CompTIA CySA+, IDS logs are essential for identifying malicious activity related to communications and network intrusions. Options like DNS (A) and tcpdump (B) provide network details, but IDS specifically monitors for intrusions and unusual activities relevant to security incidents.

Phishing attacks arebest mitigated through user education and training. The50% reduction in phishing attemptssuggests a strongawareness programthat improved employee vigilance​.

Option A (Patching)helps prevent exploits but does notdirectly reduce phishing attempts.

Option B (Configuration management)ensures proper system setup but does notaddress phishing prevention.

Option D (Threat modeling)is useful for security planning but does notactively reduce phishing attempts.

Thus,C is the correct answer, asawareness training significantly decreases phishing success rates by educating employees on email-based threats​.

A CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is a security solution that acts as an intermediary between cloud users and cloud providers, and monitors and enforces security policies for cloud access and usage. A CASB can help organizations protect their data and applications in the cloud from unauthorized or malicious access, as well as comply with regulatory standards and best practices. A CASB can also provide visibility, control, and analytics for cloud activity, and identify and mitigate potential threats12

The other options are not correct. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) is an email authentication protocol that helps email domain owners prevent spoofing and phishing attacks by verifying the sender’s identity and instructing the receiver how to handle unauthenticated messages34 SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that collects, aggregates, and analyzes log data from various sources across an organization’s network, such as applications, devices, servers, and users, and provides real-time alerts, dashboards, reports, and incident response capabilities to help security teams identify and mitigate cyberattacks56 PAM (Privileged Access Management) is a security solution that helps organizations manage and protect the access and permissions of users, accounts, processes, and systems that have elevated or administrative privileges. PAM can help prevent credential theft, data breaches, insider threats, and compliance violations by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to critical resources78

The suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs indicates that a reverse shell was executed on the host, which connects to the remote IP address 10.1.2.3 on port 8080. The shell script option D uses the netstat command to check if there is any active connection to that IP address and port, and prints “Malicious activity” if there is, or “OK” otherwise. This is the most accurate way to confirm if the reverse shell is still active, as the other options may not detect the connection or may produce false positives.

ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Incident Response, page 339.Reverse Shell Cheat Sheet, Bash section.

The correct answer is C. False negative.

A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.

A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.

The correct answer is B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.

The vulnerability that the security analyst is able to exploit is a hash collision, which is a situation where two different files produce the same hash value. Hash collisions can allow an attacker to bypass the integrity or authentication checks that rely on hash values, and submit malicious files to the system. The web application uses MD5, which is a hashing algorithm that is known to be vulnerable to hash collisions. Therefore, the analyst should suggest replacing the current MD5 with SHA-256, which is a more secure and collision-resistant hashing algorithm.

The other options are not the best suggestions to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure. Deploying a WAF (web application firewall) to the front of the application (A) may help protect the web application from some common attacks, but it may not prevent hash collisions or detect malicious files. Deploying an antivirus application on the hosting system © may help scan and remove malicious files from the system, but it may not prevent hash collisions or block malicious files from being submitted. Replacing the MD5 with digital signatures (D)may help verify the authenticity and integrity of the files, but it may require significant changes to the current script and infrastructure, as digital signatures involve public-key cryptography and certificate authorities.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:A Service Level Agreement (SLA) defines the expectations, requirements, and metrics for third-party services, including response times and responsibilities during an event. Here’s an overview of each option:

A. BIA (Business Impact Analysis)

Explanation: BIA is used to assess potential impacts of disruptions to business operations, but it does not specify third-party response requirements.

B. DRP (Disaster Recovery Plan)

Explanation: DRP provides recovery procedures for internal systems and services but does not directly establish third-party obligations.

C. SLA (Service Level Agreement)

Explanation: SLAs set clear expectations for third-party services, including response times, performance metrics, and specific requirements during incidents. SLAs ensure accountability for external providers during critical events.

D. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding)

Explanation: An MOU defines general terms and intentions between parties but lacks the specific performance metrics required in an SLA.

Asimulation(such as atabletop exercise or full-scale IR drill) is the best way to demonstrate real-world readiness without affecting operations​.

Option A (Reviewing lessons-learned and playbooks)is valuable but does not actively test readiness.

Option C (Deploying malware)is highly risky and unethical in a production environment.

Option D (Disaster recovery site testing)focuses on DR, not security incident readiness.

Thus,B is the best choice, as simulations effectivelytest incident response capabilities without operational disruption.

Implementing segmentation with ACLs is the best solution to secure the network. Segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks, or segments, based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Segmentation can help improve the network performance, scalability, and manageability, as well as enhance the network security by isolating the sensitive or critical data and systems from the rest of the network. ACLs are Access Control Lists, which are rules or policies that specify which users, devices, or applications can access a network segment or resource, and which actions they can perform. ACLs can help enforce the principle of least privilege, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the network segments or resources12. Configuring logging and monitoring to the SIEM, deploying MFA to cloud storage locations, and rolling out an IDS are all good security practices, but they are not the best solution to secure the network. Logging and monitoring tothe SIEM can help detect and analyze the network events and incidents, but they do not prevent them. MFA can help authenticate the users who access the cloud storage locations, but it does not protect the network from attacks or breaches. IDS can help identify and alert the network intrusions, but it does not block them34 . References: Network Segmentation: What It Is and How to Do It Right, What is an Access Control List (ACL)? | IBM, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security, [What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? | IBM]

The most likely scenario occurring with the time stamps is that the NTP server is not configured on the host. NTP is the Network Time Protocol, which is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. NTP uses a hierarchical system of time sources, where each level is assigned a stratum number. The most accurate time sources, such as atomic clocks or GPS receivers, are at stratum 0, and the devices that synchronize with them are at stratum 1, and so on. NTP clients can query multiple NTP servers and use algorithms to select the best time source and adjust their clocks accordingly1. If the NTP server is not configured on the host, the host will rely on its own hardware clock, which may drift over time and become inaccurate. This can cause discrepancies in the time stamps between the host and other devices on the network, such as the firewall, which may be synchronized with a different NTP server or use a different time zone. This can affect the security analysis and correlation of events, as well as the compliance and auditing of the network23. References: How the Windows Time Service Works, Time Synchronization - All You Need To Know, Firewall rules logging: a closer look at our new network compliance and …

Documenting the process in a step-by-step format on the team wiki ensures the junior analyst has a clear, repeatable reference. This approach also supports consistency and accuracy, and the documentation can be updated or referenced by other team members as needed. CompTIA emphasizes the importance of procedural documentation in both CySA+ and Security+ for ensuring team members have reliable resources for task execution, which aids in knowledge retention and standardized practices across the team.

The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating the compromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server’s data and state at a specific point in time. Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and verifying its integrity can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence.

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a target’s network or server with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing external SaaS resources. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/