SY0-701 Sample Questions Answers

CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that provides a standardized way to assess and communicate the severity and risk of vulnerabilities. CVSS uses a set of metrics and formulas to calculate a numerical score ranging from 0 to 10, where higher scores indicate higher criticality. CVSS can help organizations prioritize remediation efforts and compare vulnerabilities across different systems and vendors. The other options are not used to measure the criticality of a vulnerability, but rather to identify, classify, or report them. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 39

Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1

Detailed Explanation:The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a standardized metric used to assess the severity of vulnerabilities, aiding organizations in prioritizing their response based on risk. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Vulnerabilities, Section: "Vulnerability Prioritization and Metrics"​​.

A diagram of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Step 1: Understand Requirements & Security Principles

Requirements:

Customer-facing payment application (PCI DSS compliance applies)

Hosted on third-party cloud (e.g., AWS)

Must segment public-facing and internal resources

Needs to be scalable and resilient

Must have strong security controls

Step 2: Design the High-Level Network Layout

Core Components:

VPC (Virtual Private Cloud): Isolates your environment from other tenants in the cloud.

Subnets:

Public subnet: For resources that must communicate with the internet.

Private subnet: For internal resources, NOT directly exposed to the internet.

Step 3: Place Resources in Appropriate Subnets

Public Subnet:

Internet-facing Load Balancer (LB): Distributes traffic to application servers.

Web Application Firewall (WAF): Protects against web exploits.

Autoscaling Instances: EC2 (or VM) servers running your web front-end, automatically scaling as traffic grows.

Private Subnet:

Application servers: Back-end logic, not exposed to internet directly.

Database: Sensitive data storage, only accessible by application servers.

Internal Load Balancer: Manages traffic among app servers.

WAF: Can be used internally as well for defense-in-depth.

Step 4: Add Connectivity and Security Controls

Internet Gateway: Allows resources in public subnet to communicate with the internet.

NAT Gateway: Allows outbound internet traffic from private subnet without exposing private IPs.

Security Groups: Firewalls at the instance level; allow only necessary traffic (e.g., LB to web server, web server to DB).

Network ACLs: Subnet-level firewalls for additional control.

Step 5: Network Diagram Explanation (Based on Your Images)

Public Subnet (Top Layer)

Load Balancer

Accepts HTTPS traffic from customers.

Sends only necessary HTTP/HTTPS to web servers in public subnet.

WAF (Web Application Firewall)

Sits in front of Load Balancer.

Filters malicious requests (SQLi, XSS, etc.).

Autoscaling Group

Multiple web servers for redundancy and scalability.

Placed in public subnet to respond to traffic spikes.

Private Subnet (Bottom Layer)

Application Servers

Receive requests from public subnet’s load balancer.

Not directly exposed to the internet.

Database

Only accessible from application servers, never public.

Security groups restrict all inbound traffic except from app servers.

Internal Load Balancer

Balances requests to application servers.

Step 6: Flow of Data (Step-by-Step)

Client -> Internet Gateway -> WAF -> Load Balancer (Public Subnet):Customers initiate connections to your app over the internet.

Load Balancer -> Autoscaling Web Servers (Public Subnet):Load balancer routes requests to available web servers.

Web Servers -> Application Logic (Private Subnet):Web servers pass necessary requests to the internal application servers.

App Servers -> Database (Private Subnet):Application servers query/update customer payment data in the database.

Outbound (NAT Gateway):App servers may need to access updates or external APIs—use NAT Gateway for secure outbound connections.

Step 7: Security Best Practices

Security Groups: Only allow necessary ports (e.g., 443 for HTTPS to LB, 3306 for MySQL between app server and DB).

Network ACLs: Add another layer of subnet-level restrictions.

Encryption: Use HTTPS for all external connections, encrypt data at rest and in transit (TLS, disk encryption).

IAM Roles/Policies: Principle of least privilege for accessing resources.

Monitoring/Logging: Enable VPC flow logs, cloud service logs, and application logging.

Patch Management: Automate patching for OS and applications.

Backups: Regular, secure backups of critical data.

Step 8: Compliance Considerations

For payment applications (PCI DSS):

Isolate cardholder data environment (CDE).

Strong access controls (multi-factor authentication, role separation).

Regular vulnerability assessments and penetration testing.

Retain logs for auditing.

Step 9: Draw the Architecture (Summary)

Internet Gateway: Allows inbound/outbound internet access.

Public Subnet: WAF, Load Balancer, Autoscaling group.

Private Subnet: App servers, DB, internal LB.

NAT Gateway: Outbound access for private resources.

Security Groups/ACLs: Control all traffic flows.

Monitoring/Logging: Enabled at all levels.

Bonus: Sample Security Group Rules

Web Server (Public Subnet):

Inbound: 443 (HTTPS) from Internet

Outbound: 80/443 to App Servers

App Server (Private Subnet):

Inbound: 80/443 from Web Servers

Outbound: 3306 (MySQL) to Database

Database (Private Subnet):

Inbound: 3306 from App Servers

Outbound: None (unless replication required)

References to Security+ Domains

1.0 General Security Concepts: Principle of least privilege, defense in depth.

2.0 Threats, Vulnerabilities, Mitigations: WAF, segmentation, patching.

3.0 Security Architecture: Network segmentation, secure design.

4.0 Security Operations: Monitoring, logging, response.

5.0 Security Program Management: Compliance, policy.

Acknowledgement and attestationinvolveformal confirmationthat an application is no longer in scope for compliance, auditing, or reporting requirements. This typically includes documentation signed by relevant stakeholders confirming that the software no longer processes, stores, or transmits relevant data.

Data inventory and retention (A)is related to managing data assets, not software scope confirmation.

Right to be forgotten (B)pertains toprivacy laws (e.g., GDPR), allowing individuals to request data deletion.

Due care and due diligence (C)focus on security best practices rather than software applicability.

 Sanitization is the process of removing sensitive data from a storage device or a system before it is disposed of or reused. Sanitization can be done by using software tools or hardware devices that overwrite the data with random patterns or zeros, making it unrecoverable. Sanitization is different from destruction, which is the physical damage of the storage device to render it unusable. Sanitization is also different from enumeration, which is the identification of network resources or devices, and inventory, which is the tracking of assets and their locations. The policy of securely wiping hard drives before sending decommissioned systems to recycling is an example of sanitization, as it ensures that no confidential data can be retrieved from the recycled devices. References = Secure Data Destruction – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.7, video at 1:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387.

The logs show an SQL injection attack. The first step is to verify if new accounts have been created, indicating a successful injection.

=================

Detailed Explanation:Proper data sanitization ensures that sensitive data is securely erased from storage devices, preventing unauthorized access or recovery when the devices are disposed of or reused. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Data Sanitization and Disposal Methods"​​.

Typosquatting(also known asURL hijacking) is a type of attack where cybercriminals register domain names similar to legitimate sites but with slight misspellings (e.g., comptiatraning.com instead of comptiatraining.com). Attackers use these fake sites tosteal credentials or distribute malware. Since the user manually entered the URL and reached an unexpected website,this strongly indicates a typosquatting attack.

Detailed Explanation:The acquisition phase involves creating forensic images (exact replicas) of storage devices or memory to ensure data integrity for further analysis. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Forensic Imaging and Chain of Custody"​​.

Safety controls are security controls that are designed to protect human life and physical assets from harm or damage. Examples of safety controls include fire alarms, sprinklers, emergency exits, backup generators, and surge protectors. Safety controls should fail open, which means that they should remain operational or allow access when a failure or error occurs. Failing open can prevent or minimize the impact of a disaster, such as a fire, flood, earthquake, or power outage, on human life and physical assets. For example, if a fire alarm fails, it should still triggerthe sprinklers and unlock the emergency exits, rather than remain silent and locked. Failing open can also ensure that essential services, such as healthcare, transportation, or communication, are available during a crisis. Remote access points, logging controls, and logical security controls are other types of security controls, but they should not fail open in a data center. Remote access points are security controls that allow users or systems to access a network or a system from a remote location, such as a VPN, a web portal, or a wireless access point. Remote access points should fail closed, which means that they should deny access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the data center’s network or systems, such as by hackers, malware, or rogue devices. Logging controls are security controls that record and monitor the activities and events that occur on a network or a system, such as user actions, system errors, security incidents, or performance metrics. Logging controls should also fail closed, which means that they should stop or suspend the activities or events when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data loss, corruption, or tampering, as well as ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Logical security controls are security controls that use software or code to protect data and systems from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or destruction, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, or firewall. Logical security controls should also fail closed, which means that they should block or restrict access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data breaches, cyberattacks, or logical flaws, as well as ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 142-143, 372-373, 376-377

Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data, such as credit card information, with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that can be used in place of the actual data. This technique is particularly useful in securely storing payment information because the token can be safely stored and transmitted without exposing the original credit card number.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Data Protection​.

Risk appetite refers to the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. In this scenario, the security engineer is concerned that the timeframe for implementing a new application does not allow for sufficient cybersecurity due diligence. This reflects a situation where the organization’s risk appetite might be too high if it proceeds without the necessary security checks.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of risk management and understanding organizational risk appetite​​.

Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of using code and automation to manage and provision cloud resources, such as servers, networks, storage, and applications. IaC allows for easy deployment, scalability, consistency, and repeatability of cloud environments. IaC is also a key component of DevSecOps, which integrates security into the development and operations processes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Cloud and Virtualization Concepts, page 294.

Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, the security administrator can define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 327.

An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are permitted to run on a system or a network. An application allow list can block unknown programs from executing by only allowing the execution of programs that are explicitly authorized and verified. An application allow list can prevent malware, unauthorized software, or unwanted applications from running and compromising the security of the system or the network12.

The other options are not the best ways to block unknown programs from executing:

Access control list: This is a security technique that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to a resource or an object. An access control list can control the permissions and privileges of users or groups, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing13.

Host-based firewall: This is a security device that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host or system. A host-based firewall can block or allow networkconnections based on predefined rules, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 .

DLP solution: This is a security system that detects and prevents the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data. A DLP solution can protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 .

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Application Whitelisting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.5, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.

Full disk encryption (FDE) is a technique that encrypts all the data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. FDE protects the data from unauthorized access in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or disposed of without proper sanitization. FDE requires the user to enter a password, a PIN, a smart card, or a biometric factor to unlock the drive and boot the system. FDE can be implemented by using software solutions, such as BitLocker, FileVault, or VeraCrypt, or by using hardware solutions, such as self-encrypting drives (SEDs) or TrustedPlatform Modules (TPMs). FDE is a recommended encryption technique for laptops and other mobile devices that store sensitive data.

Partition encryption is a technique that encrypts only a specific partition or volume on a hard drive, leaving the rest of the drive unencrypted. Partition encryption is less secure than FDE, as it does not protect the entire drive and may leave traces of data on unencrypted areas. Partition encryption is also less convenient than FDE, as it requires the user to mount and unmount the encrypted partition manually.

Asymmetric encryption is a technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption is mainly used for securing communication, such as email, web, or VPN, rather than for encrypting data at rest. Asymmetric encryption is also slower and more computationally intensive than symmetric encryption, which is the type of encryption used by FDE and partition encryption.

Database encryption is a technique that encrypts data stored in a database, such as tables, columns, rows, or cells. Database encryption can be done at the application level, the database level, or the file system level. Database encryption is useful for protecting data from unauthorized access by database administrators, hackers, or malware, but it does not protect the data from physical theft or loss of the device that hosts the database.

References = Data Encryption – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 4.4, CompTIA Security+ Cheat Sheet and PDF | Zero To Mastery, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Course - Cybr, Application Hardening – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2.

An Access Control List (ACL) is a technical mechanism used to explicitly define permissions for files, folders, or other resources. ACLs specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects and what operations are allowed on given objects. This allows the administrator to centrally and granularly manage file permissions for a group or team.

Data masking replaces sensitive data with realistic but fictional data, preserving format and usability while protecting confidential information during testing in environments like UAT (User Acceptance Testing).

Tokenization (B) replaces data with tokens but is more common for payment data in production. Obfuscation (C) scrambles data but is less structured than masking. Encryption (D) protects data confidentiality but may not be practical for testing.

Data masking is a best practice for protecting sensitive data in non-production environments covered in the General Security Concepts domain【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Firewalls are classic examples of technical controls as they use technology to restrict or permit network traffic based on security policies. Technical controls are implemented through hardware or software solutions.

Security guards (A) and fences (C) are physical controls, while policies (B) are administrative controls.

Technical controls like firewalls are fundamental in securing network perimeters and endpoints as covered in the Security Architecture domain【6:Chapter 3†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

= A change control request is a document that describes the proposed change to a system, the reason for the change, the expected impact, the approval process, the testing plan, the implementation plan, the rollback plan, and the communication plan. A change control request is a best practice for applying any patch to a production system, especially a high-priority one, as it ensures that the change is authorized, documented, tested, and communicated. A change control request also minimizes the risk of unintended consequences, such as system downtime, data loss, or security breaches. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 235. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 13.

A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution collects, aggregates, and correlates logs from multiple sources to detect anomalies and generate alerts. SIEMs are essential for security monitoring and incident detection.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

Detailed Explanation:Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses SMS text messages to deceive recipients into taking actions such as revealing sensitive information. The urgency in the text indicates this vector. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Social Engineering Techniques"​​.

A hash is an algorithm used to verify data integrity by generating a fixed-size string of characters from input data. If even a single bit of the input data changes, the hash value will change, allowing users to detect any modification to the data. Hashing algorithms like SHA-256 and MD5 are commonly used to ensure data has not been altered.

Detailed Explanation:A Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) outlines terms of cooperation, including restrictions on sharing intellectual property. A breach indicates the terms of the agreement were violated, compromising confidentiality or usage terms. Reference: CompTIASecurity+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Third-Party Risk Management"​​.

The IT manager is creating a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). A BCP describes how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disaster or global incident. It ensures that critical business functions remain operational despite adverse conditions, with a focus on minimizing downtime and maintaining essential services.

Physical security relates to protecting physical assets.

Change management ensures changes in IT systems are introduced smoothly, without disrupting operations.

Disaster recovery is a subset of business continuity but focuses specifically on recovering from IT-related incidents​​.

A Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) protects individual devices by monitoring and preventing malicious activity directly on the host. It is ideal for protecting traveling employees’ devices outside the corporate network.

Isolation (A) and segmentation (B) apply to networks, and ACL (Access Control List) (C) restricts network traffic but does not provide host-level protection.

HIPS is emphasized in Security Operations for endpoint protection【6:Chapter 11†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A red team is a group of security professionals who perform offensive security assessments covering penetration testing and social engineering. A red team simulates real-world attacks and exploits the vulnerabilities of a target organization, system, or network. A red team aims to test the effectiveness of the security controls, policies, and procedures of the target, as well as the awareness and response of the staff and the blue team. A red team can be hired as an external consultant or formed internally within the organization. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 18. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.8, page 4. Security Teams – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.8

 A user provisioning script is an automation technique that uses a predefined set of instructions or commands to create, modify, or delete user accounts and assign appropriate access or permissions. A user provisioning script can help to streamline account creation by reducing manual errors, ensuring consistency and compliance, and saving time and resources12.

The other options are not automation techniques that can streamline account creation:

Guard rail script: This is a script that monitors and enforces the security policies and rules on a system or a network. A guard rail script can help to prevent unauthorized or malicious actions, such as changing security settings, accessing restricted resources, or installing unwanted software3.

Ticketing workflow: This is a process that tracks and manages the requests, issues, or incidents that are reported by users or customers. A ticketing workflow can help to improve the communication, collaboration, and resolution of problems, but it does not automate the account creation process4.

Escalation script: This is a script that triggers an alert or a notification when a certain condition or threshold is met or exceeded. An escalation script can help to inform the relevant parties or authorities of a critical situation, such as a security breach, a performance degradation, or a service outage.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: User Provisioning – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1034: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 104. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 105.

Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, celebrities, or politicians. The attacker impersonates someone with authority or influence and tries to trick the victim into performing an action, such as transferring money, revealing sensitive information, or clicking on a malicious link. Whaling is also called CEO fraud or business email compromise2.

A cryptographic vulnerability refers to weaknesses caused by the use of outdated or insecure cryptographic algorithms, protocols, or keys. These vulnerabilities make it easier for attackers to compromise encrypted data or communications. Use of deprecated ciphers or insufficient key lengths are typical examples.

A group policy object (GPO) is a mechanism for applying configuration settings to computers and users in an Active Directory domain. By pushing a GPO update, the systems administrator can quickly and uniformly enforce the new password policy across all systems in the domain. Deploying PowerShell scripts, enabling PAP, and updating EDR profiles are not the most efficient or effective ways to change the password policy within an enterprise environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 115; Password Policy - Windows Security

 A honey pot is a system or a network that is designed to mimic a real production server and attract potential attackers. A honey pot can be used to identify the attacker’s methods, techniques, and objectives without affecting the actual production servers. A honey pot can also divert the attacker’s attention from the real targets and waste their time and resources12.

The other options are not effective ways to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers:

Video surveillance: This is a physical security technique that uses cameras and monitors to record and observe the activities in a certain area. Video surveillance can help to deter, detect, and investigate physical intrusions, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers3.

Zero Trust: This is a security strategy that assumes that no user, device, or network is trustworthy by default and requires strict verification and validation for every request and transaction. Zero Trust can help to improve the security posture and reduce the attack surface of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers4.

Geofencing: This is a security technique that uses geographic location as a criterion to restrict or allow access to data or resources. Geofencing can help to protect the data sovereignty andcompliance of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers5.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Honeypots and Deception – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 985: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

Memory injection vulnerabilities allow unauthorized code or commands to be executed within a software program, leading to abnormal behavior such as generating outbound traffic over random high ports. This issue often arises from software not properly validating or encoding input, which can be exploited by attackers to inject malicious code.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Updating wire transfer processes to include verification steps (such as requiring dual approval or verifying account changes via a secondary communication method) canprevent fraudulenttransactions. Attackers often use business email compromise (BEC) or pretexting to trick employees into transferring funds to fraudulent accounts.

Standardizing security incident reportingis useful for tracking security events but does not prevent fraud in real time.

Executing regular phishing campaignsimproves awareness but does not enforce a verification process for financial transactions.

Implementing insider threat detectionfocuses on internal risks but does not specifically prevent external fraud.

Amore secure wire transfer processwith additional verification steps is the most effective measure against fraudulent transactions.

Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol used for secure command-line access to remote systems, while Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is an extension of SSH used specifically for securely transferring files. Both SSH and SFTP ensure that data is encrypted during transmission, protecting it from interception or tampering.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure Protocols and Encryption​.

Shadow IT refers to the use of information technology systems, devices, software, applications, and services without explicit IT department approval. This is the most likely cause of introducing vulnerabilities on a corporate network by deploying unapproved software, as such software may not have been vetted for security compliance, increasing the risk of vulnerabilities.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The concept of Shadow IT is discussed as a significant risk due to the introduction of unapproved and potentially vulnerable software into the corporate network​​.

Detailed Explanation:Standard operating procedures (SOPs) outline the steps to be followed to maintain a secure baseline, such as testing and deploying patches while minimizing risk to the system. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Patch Management and Baseline Compliance"​​.

Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to injectcommands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.

Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.

Non-compliance with internal policies, such as corporate security policies, falls under internal non-compliance. These are rules created and enforced within the organization to maintain security standards.

External non-compliance (A) refers to violations of outside regulations or laws. Standards (B) are generally established best practices or industry guidelines, and regulation (C) refers to legal or governmental requirements.

Internal compliance management is a key focus area in the Security Program Management domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Detailed Explanation:Access control lists (ACLs) allow administrators to fine-tune file permissions by specifying which users or groups have access to a file and defining the level of access. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control Mechanisms"​​.

Theprimary goal of corrective controls in financial systems is to ensure that errors do not propagate across interconnected systems. Financial transactions are ofteninterdependent, meaning one incorrect or unauthorized change can affect multiple systems. Regulations often mandate these controls tomaintain accuracy and prevent cascading failures.

A (insider threats altering banking details)is a concern, but thisscenario focuses on corrective controls, not insider threats specifically.

C (business insurance)is unrelated to why corrective controls are implemented.

D (preventing unauthorized changes)falls underpreventive, notcorrectivecontrols.

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. Federation relies on a trusted third party that stores the user’s credentials and provides them to the requested resources or services without exposing them. Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create passwords that meet certain criteria, such as length, character types, and uniqueness. Password complexity can help prevent brute-force attacks, password guessing, and credential stuffing by making passwords harder to crack or guess. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 and 312-313 1

When a legacy device is no longer receiving updates or patches, it is considered to be at the end of life (EOL). This means the manufacturer has ceased support for the device, and it will no longer receive updates, security patches, or technical assistance. EOL devices pose security risks and are often decommissioned or replaced.

End of support may seem similar but typically refers to the cessation of technical support, whereas EOL means the device is fully retired.

End of business and End of testing do not apply in this context​​.

The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have the appropriate permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid this issue by granting the user or process the necessary access rights for the patching activity. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 931

Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps:

Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers

Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers

Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components

Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security

Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle

Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies References = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is HardwareSecurity? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It

Passive reconnaissance involves gathering publicly available information about a target without directly interacting with the target systems. Checking OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) sources is a typical passive technique used to collect data without alerting the target.

Active reconnaissance (A) involves direct interaction with the target. Offensive (C) and defensive (D) refer to broader security postures and are not specific reconnaissance types.

Passive reconnaissance is a foundational step in penetration testing and covered in the Threats and Vulnerabilities domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Encryption at rest is a strategy that protects data stored on a device, such as a laptop, by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with a decryption key or password. Encryption at rest can prevent data loss on stolen laptops by preventing unauthorized access to the data, even if the device is physically compromised. Encryption at rest can also help comply with data privacy regulations and standards that require data protection. Masking, data classification, and permission restrictions are other strategies that can help protect data, but they may not be sufficient or applicable for data stored on laptops. Masking is a technique that obscures sensitive data elements, such as credit card numbers, with random characters or symbols, but it is usually used for data in transit or in use, not at rest. Data classification is a process that assigns labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact, but it does not protect the data itself. Permission restrictions are rules that define who can access, modify, or delete data, but they may not prevent unauthorized access if the laptop is stolen and the security controls are bypassed. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17-18, 372-373

Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated tools or scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker’s IP address, reset ismith’s password, and notify ismith of the incident. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1

OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) involves collecting publicly available information, including data breaches, leaked credentials, and other exposed company data found online or on the dark web. OSINT tools can discover if a company’s information has been compromised publicly.

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) monitors internal logs and events but does not collect external breach info. CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) is a database of known software vulnerabilities, not breach data. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) rates vulnerabilities' severity.

OSINT is a key technique in the Threats and Vulnerabilities domain for external threat intelligence gathering【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

This describes a watering hole attack, where an attacker compromises a website frequently visited by the target group and delivers malicious payloads, such as automatic downloads.

XSS (A) injects scripts into web pages, typosquatting (C) involves fake websites with misspelled URLs, and buffer overflow (D) exploits memory but does not involve website compromise with automatic downloads.

Watering hole attacks are well-known web-based threats covered in SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

The scenario suggests that only the employees who used the kiosks inside the building had their credentials compromised. Since the time-keeping website is accessible from the internet, it is possible that a malicious actor exploited an unpatched vulnerability in the site, allowing them to inject malicious code that captured the credentials of those who logged in from the kiosks. This is a common attack vector for stealing credentials from web applications.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course discusses web application vulnerabilities and how attackers can exploit them to steal credentials​​.

Dumpster diving is an attack method where attackers search through physical waste, such as discarded documents and printouts, to find sensitive information that has not been properly disposed of. In the context of printing centers, this could involve attackers retrieving printed documents containing confidential data that were improperly discarded without shredding or other secure disposal methods. This emphasizes the importance of proper disposal and physical security measures in cyber hygiene practices.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Physical Security and Cyber Hygiene​.

Hacktivists are individuals or groups who use hacking to promote a political agenda, social cause, or philosophical beliefs. Their primary motivation is not personal gain but rather to draw attention to, or protest against, perceived injustices or causes.

Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 372-373

AMaster Service Agreement (MSA)establishesthe general terms and conditionsfor ongoing business engagements. This allows companies toreuse the same termsacross multiple contracts, revisiting them periodically for updates.

NDA (B)protects confidential information but does not define service terms.

MOU (C)is a non-binding agreement, often used for partnerships, not formal service contracts.

SLA (D)focuses onservice performance expectations, not overall contract terms.

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is an example of a managerial control. Managerial controls are policies and procedures that govern an organization's operations, ensuring security through directives and rules. The AUP defines acceptable behavior and usage of company resources, setting guidelines for employees.

Physical controls refer to security measures like locks, fences, or security guards.

Technical controls involve security mechanisms such as firewalls or encryption.

Operational controls are procedures for maintaining security, such as backup and recovery plans​​.

Cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities allow attackers to inject malicious scripts into a website, which are then executed in the user’s web browser, potentially leading to data theft or session hijacking.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

Hashing is the process of converting plaintext passwords into a fixed-length, irreversible string using a mathematical algorithm (hash function). This makes each password unique based on its content, and even a small change in the password will produce a different hash. The primary purpose is to ensure that the actual passwords are not stored directly and cannot be easily recovered from the hash, even if the hash is compromised.

Cryptojacking is the likely cause in this scenario. It involves malware that hijacks the resources of infected computers to mine cryptocurrency, usually without the user's knowledge. This type of attack doesn't typically degrade performance significantly or result in obvious system failures, which matches the situation described, where the machines showed no signs of degraded performance or excessive failed logins.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Cryptojacking is covered under types of malware attacks, highlighting its stealthy nature and impact on infected systems​​.

The first step in creating an anomaly detection process is building a baseline of normal behavior within the system. This baseline serves as a reference point to identify deviations or anomalies that could indicate a security incident. By understanding what normal activity looks like, security teams can more effectively detect and respond to suspicious behavior.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Monitoring and Baselines​.

Job rotation is a strategy used in organizations to detect and prevent fraud by periodically assigning employees to different roles within the organization. This approach helps ensure that no single employee has exclusive control over a specific process or set of tasks for an extended period, thereby reducing the opportunity for fraudulent activities to go unnoticed. By rotating roles, organizations can uncover irregularities and discrepancies that might have been concealed by an employee who had prolonged access to sensitive functions. Job rotation also promotes cross-training, which can enhance the organization's overall resilience and flexibility.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Risk Management and Compliance​.

Classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity and handling requirements to data, which informs its lifecycle management, retention, and disposal methods. In regulated industries such as banking, proper data classification ensures that data subject to legal or regulatory requirements is destroyed according to those requirements at the end of its retention period. This directly guides how the data should be handled and disposed of.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a security solution that allows organizations to enforce policies on employee-owned or company-issued mobile devices. It can restrict the installation of unauthorized applications, ensuring that only company-approved apps are used.

Containerizationisolates work applications from personal applications but does not enforce app restrictions.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)focuses on preventing sensitive data leaks rather than managing app installations.

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM)tracks changes to files and system configurations but does not control app installations.

Therefore,MDMis the best solution for restricting unauthorized applications on personal devices.

Hashing is used to verify data integrity. By comparing the hash value of the data before and after transmission, it is possible to determine if the data has been altered in transit. If the hash values match, the data has not been modified.

Detailed Explanation:Behavioral analytics tools monitor user actions and detect anomalies that may indicate insider threats, such as unauthorized access or unusual data exfiltration activities. These tools establish baselines for normal behavior and flag deviations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Behavioral Analytics and Monitoring"​​.

Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches orvulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.

Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.

Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans​​.

Detailed Explanation:Load balancing improves application availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers. If one server fails, traffic is automatically routed to other available servers with minimal intervention. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "High Availability Solutions"​​.

 Labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs can provide several security benefits for a company. Two of these benefits are:

A. If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified. An asset inventory sticker is a label that contains a unique identifier for a laptop, such as a serial number, a barcode, or a QR code. By associating this identifier with an employee ID, the security team can easily track and locate the owner of the laptop in case of a security incident, such as a malware infection, a data breach, or a theft. This way, the security team can notify the correct employee about the incident, and provide them with the necessary instructions or actions to take,such as changing passwords, scanning for viruses, or reporting the loss. This can help to contain the incident, minimize the damage, and prevent further escalation.

F. Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization. When an employee leaves the organization, the company needs to ensure that all the company data and assets are returned or deleted from the employee’s laptop. By labeling the laptop with an asset inventory sticker and associating it with an employee ID, the company can easily identify and verify the laptop that belongs to the departing employee, and perform the appropriate data backup, wipe, or transfer procedures. This can help to protect the company data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the former employee or any other party.

The other options are not correct because they are not related to the security benefits of labeling laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. B. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device. User awareness training is a type of security education that aims to improve the knowledge and behavior of users regarding security threats and best practices. The security team can send user awareness training to the appropriate device by using the email address, username, or IP address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. C. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens. Software MFA tokens are a type of multi-factor authentication that uses a software application to generate a one-time password or a push notification for verifying the identity of a user. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens by using the device ID, phone number, or email address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. D. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops. User-based firewall policies are a type of firewall rules that apply to specific users or groups of users, regardless of the device or location they use to access the network. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops by using the username, domain, or certificate of the user, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. E. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops. Penetration testing is a type of security assessment that simulates a real-world attack on a network or system to identify and exploit vulnerabilities. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops by using the IP address, hostname, or MAC address of the laptop, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 17. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.4: Asset Management, video: Asset Inventory (6:12).

The most important security concern when using legacy systems is the lack of vendor support. Without support from the vendor, systems may not receive critical security patches and updates, leaving them vulnerable to exploitation. This lack of support can result in increased risk of security breaches, as vulnerabilities discovered in the software may never be addressed.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the context of risk management and the challenges posed by legacy systems​​.

A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of critical services and applications. To achieve this goal, a high-availability network must consider two important factors: ease of recovery and attack surface.

Ease of recovery refers to the ability of a network to quickly restore normal functionality after a failure, disruption, or disaster. A high-availability network should have mechanisms such as redundancy, failover, backup, and restore to ensure that any single point of failure does not cause a complete network outage. A high-availability network should also have procedures and policies for incident response, disaster recovery, and business continuity to minimize the impact of any network issue on the organization’s operations and reputation.

Attack surface refers to the exposure of a network to potential threats and vulnerabilities. A high-availability network should have measures such as encryption, authentication, authorization,firewall, intrusion detection and prevention, and patch management to protect the network from unauthorized access, data breaches, malware, denial-of-service attacks, and other cyberattacks. A high-availability network should also have processes and tools for risk assessment, threat intelligence, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing to identify and mitigate any weaknesses or gaps in the network security.

Detailed Explanation:

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive surrogate values that retain the necessary format but are meaningless without access to the original data. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Data Masking and Tokenization"​​.

Abug bounty programencourages ethical hackers tofind and report vulnerabilities, helping organizations discover security flaws before they are exploited by malicious actors. Unlikevulnerability scans, bug bounty programs usereal-world testing techniques.

To identify the impacted host in a command-and-control (C2) server incident, the following logs should be analyzed:

DHCP logs: These logs record IP address assignments. By reviewing DHCP logs, an organization can determine which host was assigned a specific IP address during the time of the attack.

Firewall logs: Firewall logs will show traffic patterns, including connections to external C2 servers. Analyzing these logs helps to identify the IP address and port numbers of the communicating host.

Application, Authentication, and Database logs are less relevant in this context because they focus on internal processes and authentication events rather than network traffic involved in a C2 attack​​​.

A legal hold (also known as a litigation hold) is a notification sent from an organization’s legal team to employees instructing them not to delete electronically stored information (ESI) or discard paper documents that may be relevant to a new or imminent legal case. A legal hold is intended to preserve evidence and prevent spoliation, which is the intentional or negligent destruction of evidence that could harm a party’s case. A legal hold can be triggered by various events, such as a lawsuit, a regulatory investigation, or a subpoena12

In this scenario, the company’s attorneys have requested that the security team initiate a legal hold in response to the lawsuit filed by the customers after the company was compromised. This means that the security team will most likely be required to retain any communications related to the security breach until further notice. This could include emails, instant messages, reports, logs, memos, or any other documents that could be relevant to the lawsuit. The security team should also inform the relevant custodians (the employees who have access to or control over the ESI) of their preservation obligations and monitor their compliance. The security team should also document the legal hold process and its scope, as well as take steps to protect the ESI from alteration, deletion, or loss34

Upgrading end-of-support operating systemsisone of the most effective ways to reduce the attack surface. Unsupported OS versionsno longer receive security patches, making them prime targets for attackers.Removing outdated softwareensures that known vulnerabilities cannot be exploited.

A (honeynet)is used for threat analysis, not reducing the attack surface.

B (Group Policy)helps enforce security policies butdoes not address outdated vulnerabilities.

C (High availability)focuses on uptime, not security risk reduction.

An image backup, also known as a full system backup, captures the entire contents of a system, including the operating system, applications, settings, and all data. This type of backup allows for a complete recovery of the system in case of a disaster, as it includes everything needed to restore the system to its previous state. This makes it the ideal choice for a systems administrator who needs to ensure the ability to recover the entire system, including the OS.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, domain on Security Operations​​.

Air-gapping is the most effective way to protect an application server running unsupported software from network threats. By physically isolating the server from any network connection (no wired or wireless communication), it is protected from external cyber threats. While other options like port security or a screened subnet can provide some level of protection, an air gap offers the highest level of security by preventing any network-based attacks entirely.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure System Design​.

A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization’s incident response plan and procedures. It involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who discuss their roles and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. It can help identify gaps, weaknesses, and improvement areas in the incident response process. It can also enhance communication, coordination, and collaboration among the participants. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 525 1

The most likely way a rogue device was able to connect to the network is through a MAC cloning attack. In this attack, a personal device copies the MAC address of an authorized device, bypassing the 802.1X access control that relies on known hardware addresses for network access. The matching MAC addresses in the audit report suggest that this technique was used to gain unauthorized network access.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and MAC Address Spoofing​.

Detailed Explanation:

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based activity where stakeholders simulate a security breach scenario to identify gaps in response plans and clarify roles and responsibilities. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Incident Response Planning and Exercises"​​.

 An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.

The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a servicelevel agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).

Input sanitization is a critical security measure to prevent SQL injection attacks, which occur when an attacker exploits vulnerabilities in a website's input fields to execute malicious SQL code. By properly sanitizing and validating all user inputs, developers can prevent malicious code from being executed, thereby securing the website against such attacks.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of web application security and common vulnerability mitigation strategies​​.

Jailbreaking is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) program. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the manufacturer’s or the carrier’s restrictions on a device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, to gain root access and install unauthorized or custom software. Jailbreaking can compromise the security of the device and the data stored on it, as well as expose it to malware, viruses, or hacking. Jailbreaking can also violate the warranty and the terms of service of the device, and make it incompatible with the company’s security policies and standards. Therefore, a company setting up a BYOD program should prohibit jailbreaking and enforce device compliance and encryption. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 76. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.4, page 11.

A supply chain vendor is a third-party entity that provides goods or services to an organization, such as a SaaS provider. A supply chain vendor can pose a risk to the new system if the vendor has poor security practices, breaches, or compromises that could affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or its data. The organization should perform due diligence and establish a service level agreement with the vendor to mitigate this risk. The other options are not specific to the scenario of using a SaaS provider, but rather general risks that could apply to any system.

802.1X is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It supports the use of certificates for authentication, can quarantine unapproved devices, and ensures that only approved and updated devices can access network resources. This protocol best meets the requirements of securing both wired and wireless networks with internal certificates.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and authentication protocols​​.

A Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) provides a structured approach to standardizing and aligning security programs across different organizations. By both companies adopting the same CSF, they can ensure that their security measures, policies, and practices are consistent, which is essential during a merger when aligning two different security programs.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course discusses the importance of adopting standardized cybersecurity frameworks (CSF) for aligning security programs during mergers and acquisitions​​.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)defines themaximum acceptable downtimebefore business operationsmust be restored. It helps organizations set expectations for recovery speed and prioritize system restoration accordingly.

A (likelihood of an incident and cost)relates to risk assessment, not RTO.

B (roles and responsibilities)falls underincident response planning, not RTO.

C (state of restored systems)is covered byRecovery Point Objective (RPO), not RTO.

Shadow IT refers to employees using software or services without official approval, often introducing security risks due to lack of control, monitoring, or compliance. This can lead to vulnerabilities, data leakage, or policy violations.

Unskilled attacker (A) and hacktivist (B) are threat actor types; supply chain (D) refers to risks from external partners or vendors, not internal unauthorized software usage.

Shadow IT is highlighted in Security Program Management and Threats domains for its risk implications【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

VM escape allows an attacker to break out of a virtual machine to access the hypervisor or other adjacent virtual machines on the same host, effectively moving laterally to adjacent systems.

Side loading (B) involves loading malicious code in place of legitimate components. Remote code execution (C) allows running arbitrary code remotely. Resource exhaustion (D) causes denial of service by overusing resources.

VM escape is a known virtualization vulnerability detailed in SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Installing a host-based content filtering solution on the endpoints ensures that web traffic is filtered locally even when the VPN connection to the on-premises proxy fails, maintaining protection for remote users.

Network access control (A) manages device network access, local gateway configuration (B) does not solve protection if VPN fails, and public NAT (C) exposes internal resources and increases risk.

Endpoint filtering complements VPN for resilient web security, covered in Security Architecture and Operations【6:Chapter 11†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust canprovide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.

The presence of another device providing internet access that bypasses the content filtering system indicates the existence of a rogue access point. Rogue access points are unauthorized devices that can create a backdoor into the network, allowing users to bypass security controls like content filtering. This presents a significant security risk as it can expose the network to unauthorized access and potential data breaches.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Rogue access points are highlighted as a major security risk, allowing unauthorized access to the network and bypassing security measures​​.

A warm site offers a compromise between cost and recovery speed. It includes hardware and network infrastructure partially configured, allowing quicker recovery than a cold site but at lower cost than a hot site.

Hot sites (A) enable rapid recovery but at high cost. Cold sites (B) are low cost but slow to recover. Manual (C) refers to manual processes, typically slower.

Warm sites balance recovery time and cost in disaster recovery planning【6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Masking is a method to secure credit card data that involves replacing some or all of the digits with symbols, such as asterisks, dashes, or Xs, while leaving some of the original digits visible. Masking is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card, as it can prevent unauthorized access to the full card number, while still allowing identification and verification of the cardholder. Masking does not alter the original data, unlike encryption, hashing, or tokenization, which use algorithms to transform the data into different formats.

According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used. Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.

ReferencesCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data Security, page 511

To enhance security for a system running an end-of-life operating system, placing the system in an isolated VLAN is the most effective approach. By isolating the system from the rest of the network, you can limit its exposure to potential threats while maintaining its functionality. This segmentation helps protect the rest of the network from any vulnerabilities in the outdated system.

Installing HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) can help detect intrusions but won't mitigate the risks posed by an unsupported OS.

Decommissioning may not be feasible if the system is critical.

Encrypting the system's hard drive protects data at rest but doesn't address vulnerabilities from an outdated OS​​​.

A honeypot is a decoy system or account designed to attract attackers and detect malicious activity. Creating a user account as a trap fits this definition.

Honeytoken (A) is a decoy data element, honeynet (B) is a network of honeypots, and honeyfile (D) is a decoy file.

Honeypots are important tools in Security Operations and incident detection【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is a security protocol used to encrypt and authenticate the streaming of audio and video over IP networks. It ensures that the video streams from the IP cameras are both encrypted to prevent unauthorized access and authenticated to verify the integrity of the stream, making it the ideal choice for securing video surveillance.

Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.

Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.

Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.

Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include personal information, health records, and intellectual property.

Critical data is data that is essential for the organization’s operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.

Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 - Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30.

To establish an encrypted connection (such as HTTPS/TLS) with an externally facing web server, the server must deploy a public key as part of its digital certificate. Clients use the server’s public key to initiate secure communication, which is validated by certificate authorities. The server holds the matching private key, but it is the public key that must be made available for encrypted connections to be established.

Intellectual property is a type of data that consists of ideas, inventions, designs, or other creative works that have commercial value and are protected by law. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property data in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products or services for the company. Intellectual property data needs to be protected from unauthorized use, disclosure, or theft, as it can give the company a competitive advantage in the market. Therefore, these employees receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect this type of data. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 1.2 - Security Concepts, 7:57 - 9:03.

Software as a Service (SaaS) is the cloud model that best meets the goal of outsourcing the management, including patching, of firmware, operating systems, and applications to the cloud vendor. In a SaaS environment, the cloud provider is responsible for maintaining and updating the entire software stack, allowing the organization to focus on using the software rather than managing its infrastructure.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domains related to cloud security models​​.

A Secure Web Gateway (SWG) protects users by filtering unwanted software/malware from user-initiated web traffic and enforcing corporate and regulatory policy compliance. This technology allows the company to secure remote users' data and web traffic without relying on a VPN, making it ideal for organizations supporting remote work.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and remote access technologies​​.

Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. References = Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.

AES-256 is a symmetric encryption algorithm widely used to protect data at rest by converting plaintext into ciphertext that is unreadable without the proper key. It provides strong confidentiality and is a standard for encrypting stored data.

TLS 1.2 (A) secures data in transit, not at rest. Masking (C) obscures data but typically for display or limited use and is reversible. Salting (D) is used alongside hashing to protect passwords and data integrity but does not encrypt data.

Encryption with AES-256 is recognized as a best practice for securing stored data in the Security+ Cryptography and General Security Concepts domains【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

This example of a script injection attack would be best mitigated by input sanitization. Input sanitization involves cleaning or filtering user inputs to ensure that they do not contain harmful data, such as malicious scripts. This prevents attackers from executing script-based attacks (e.g., Cross-Site Scripting or XSS).

Nmap command is unrelated to input sanitization, as it is a network scanning tool.

Email phishing attempts require different mitigations, such as user training.

Browser warnings about insecure connections involve encryption protocols, not input validation​

 Capacity planning is the process of determining the resources needed to meet the current and future demands of an organization. Capacity planning can help a company develop a business continuity strategy by estimating how many staff members would be required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a pandemic. Capacity planning can also help a company optimize the use of its resources, reduce costs, and improve performance. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 184. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 14. Business Continuity – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.1

A tabletop exercise is a simulation-based activity where incident response team members and relevant stakeholders walk through a hypothetical security incident in a discussion-based format. This exercise helps validate response plans, roles, and communication channels without actual system disruption.

Lessons learned (A) is a post-incident review, digital forensics (B) is evidence collection after an incident, and root cause analysis (D) investigates the underlying cause after an event.

Tabletop exercises are standard practices within the Security Operations domain to prepare teams for real incidents【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA). References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 337 1

The employee notices that the links in the email do not correspond to the company's official URLs, indicating that this is likely a social engineering attack. Social engineering involves manipulating individuals into divulging confidential information or performing actions that may compromise security. Phishing emails, like the one described, often contain fraudulent links to trick the recipient into providing sensitive information or downloading malware.

Business email refers to business email compromise (BEC), which typically involves impersonating a high-level executive to defraud the company.

Unsecured network is unrelated to the email content.

Default credentials do not apply here, as the issue is with suspicious links, not login credentials​​.

Full disk encryption (A)ensures that data stored on the device is protected even if the device is physically stolen. This is a fundamental security control for end-user devices, especially laptops and mobile devices, to prevent data breaches.

Endpoint protection (D)refers to anti-malware, antivirus, and host-based firewall solutions that safeguard end-user devices from malware, ransomware, and unauthorized access.

These measures are explicitly referenced in theCompTIA Security+ SY0-701exam objective2.2: Given a scenario, apply security concepts in support of organizational risk mitigationunderDevice hardening.

Detailed Explanation:The activity described in the table, where multiple connection attempts are made on port 445 (used for SMB services), suggests a brute-force attack. The attacker likely used automated methods to guess credentials, causing multiple failures. Such attempts are ahallmark of brute-force attacks targeting shared resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Indicators of Malicious Activity"​​.

An air-gapped system is physically isolated from unsecured networks (like the public Internet), ensuring that there is no direct or indirect network connection. This is the most effective way to prevent Internet-based access to sensitive systems.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

AnEndpoint Detection and Response (EDR)solution is designed tomonitor, detect, and respond to security incidents on endpoints (such as workstations and servers). Itcollects and analyzes data, detecting suspicious activity and forwarding relevant information for further investigation.

Network Access Control (NAC) (A)enforces network access policies but does not analyze security threats on hosts.

Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS) (B)detect and block network threats but do not provide deep endpoint analytics.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) (C)aggregates logs and provides security analytics but lacks direct endpoint detection and response capabilities.

EDR is the best choicefor analyzing and responding to endpoint security incidents.

Code repositories are a common source of unintentional corporate credential leakage, especially in cloud environments. Developers may accidentally commit and push sensitive information, such as API keys, passwords, and other credentials, to public or poorly secured repositories. These credentials can then be accessed by unauthorized users, leading to security breaches. Ensuring that repositories are properly secured and that sensitive data is never committed is critical for protecting against this type of leakage.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threats and Vulnerability Management​.

Placing a false (decoy) text file in a sensitive location (such as /docs/salaries) is an example of a honeytoken or deception technique. This technique is used to attract insider attackers and monitor their actions when they attempt to access the file.

Detailed Explanation:Avoidance involves choosing not to engage in activities or markets where certain risks are present. This is a proactive approach to risk management. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Risk Management Strategies"​​.

IPS stands for intrusion prevention system, which is a network security device that monitors and blocks malicious traffic in real time. IPS is different from IDS, which only detects and alerts on malicious traffic, but does not block it. IPS would have mitigated the spread of ransomware by preventing the hacker from accessing the system via the phishing link, or by stopping the ransomware from communicating with its command and control server or encrypting the files.

Detailed Explanation:

Corrective controls, such as auditing and versioning, help prevent unauthorized changes to financial data, ensuring data integrity and compliance with regulations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Controls for Financial Systems"​​.

To ensure that sensitive data, such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII), is not modified, the bank should implement file integrity monitoring (FIM). FIM tracks changes to files and provides alerts if unauthorized modifications are detected, ensuring data integrity.

Full disk encryption protects data at rest but does not prevent or monitor modifications.

Network access control (NAC) manages access to the network but doesn't monitor file changes.

User behavior analytics (UBA) detects suspicious user activities but is not focused on file integrity​​​.

E-discovery (electronic discovery) is the process of identifying, collecting, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) in response to a legal request or investigation. It is a critical component of digital forensics when dealing with litigation, compliance, or regulatory matters.

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules or signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) restricts employees from sharing proprietary or confidential information when they leave the company. Legal consequences may result from violating an NDA.

The first step in responding to a cybersecurity incident, particularly when malware is detected, is to contain the impacted hosts. This action prevents the spread of malware to other parts of the network, limiting the potential damage while further investigation and remediation actions are planned.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly on incident response procedures and the importance of containment in managing security incidents​​.

Detailed Explanation:The correct sequence is to first establish secure baselines by determining the required configurations, deploy those configurations across systems, and finally maintain the configurations through regular updates and auditing. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Secure Baseline Development"​​.

The final step in the incident response process is "Lessons learned." This step involves reviewing and analyzing the incident to understand what happened, how it was handled, and what could be improved. The goal is to improve future response efforts and prevent similar incidents from occurring. It's essential for refining the incident response plan and enhancing overall security posture.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of incident response and recovery​​.

 A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. References = Security Controls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.

A strong authentication policy should enforcepassword length(e.g., minimum of 12-16 characters) andcomplexity(mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols). These measures significantlyreduce the risk of brute-force attacks.

Least privilege (C)relates to access control, not authentication policies.

Something you have (D)andbiometrics (F)pertain to multi-factor authentication (MFA) but are not password policy requirements.

A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization’s internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data. References = Buffer Overflows – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.3, Web Application Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

Cloud-based models provide strong security with features like encryption, redundancy, and disaster recovery, making it a secure choice for international operations.

=================

 The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user’s password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication. Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user’s role or identity. Access management © is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References =You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1

Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2

Multi-factor Authentication – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43

TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4

CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5

Change management procedures provide structured steps to approve, test, document, and deploy software changes, ensuring controlled and auditable version releases that minimize risks and disruptions.

Business continuity planning (A) relates to operational continuity, quantified risk analysis (B) assesses risks quantitatively, and static code analysis (C) finds coding defects but does not control release processes.

Change management is fundamental to software lifecycle governance in SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Detailed Explanation:Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is a key metric in risk management, reflecting the time required to repair a failed component, such as a generator, and restore operations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Business Continuity Metrics"​​.

Centralized authentication (such as Active Directory or LDAP) combined with proper password policies helps prevent the reuse of the same local credentials across multiple systems, reducing the risk of lateral movement during attacks like credential reuse or pass-the-hash.

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) uses packet inspection (either signature-based, anomaly-based, or both) to analyze network traffic and detect malicious patterns. Configuring packet inspection is the first step to ensure the IPS can identify and respond to specific attack signatures.

A warm site is the best option for a business that does not require immediate failover but wants to reduce the workload required for recovery. A warm site has some pre-installed equipment and data, allowing for quicker recovery than a cold site, but it still requires some setup before becoming fully operational.

Hot sites provide immediate failover but are more expensive and require constant maintenance.

Cold sites require significant time and effort to get up and running after an outage.

Geographically dispersed sites refer to a specific location strategy rather than the readiness of the recovery site​​.

A brute-force attack is a type of attack that involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords or keys until the correct one is found. The log file shows multiple failed login attempts in a short amount of time, which is a characteristic of a brute-force attack. The attacker is trying to guess the password of the Administrator account on the server. The log file also shows the event ID 4625, which indicates a failed logon attempt, and the status code0xC000006A, which means the user name is correct but the password is wrong. These are indicators of compromise (IoC) that suggest a brute-force attack is taking place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 and 223 1

A full inventory of all hardware and software is essential for measuring the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, because it allows the security analyst to identify which systems are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts. Without a full inventory, the security analyst may miss some vulnerable systems or waste time and resources on irrelevant ones. Documentation of system classifications, a list of system owners and their departments, and third-party risk assessment documentation are all useful for risk management, but they are not sufficient to measure the impact of a new vulnerability. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative3

Detailed Explanation:

Time-of-day restrictions limit access to corporate systems based on predefined schedules. This ensures employees can only access resources during their assigned work hours. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control Models"​​.

An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user’s awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.

The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user’s knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user’s skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Endpoint Detection and Response – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.2, video at 5:30; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 163.

Zero Trust architecture is based on the principle of "never trust, always verify," meaning all traffic between systems must be authenticated and authorized before communication is allowed, regardless of network location.

Policy enforcement (A) is important but broader. Authentication (B) is a component of Zero Trust, and confidentiality (D) refers to data protection, not access validation.

Zero Trust is a modern security framework emphasized in Security Architecture for securing enterprise environments【6:Chapter 3†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Packet capture data can be very large and may not need to be stored for extended periods compared to other logs essential for security audits.

=================

The most important consideration when establishing a data privacy program is defining the organization's role as a controller or processor. These roles, as outlined in privacy regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), determine the responsibilities regarding the handling of personal data. A controller is responsible for determining the purpose and means of data processing, while a processor acts on behalf of the controller. This distinction is crucial for compliance with data privacy laws.

Reporting structure for the data privacy officer is important, but it is a secondary consideration compared to legal roles.

Request process for data subject access is essential for compliance but still depends on the organization's role as controller or processor.

Physical location of the company can affect jurisdiction, but the role as controller or processor has a broader and more immediate impact​​​.

A qualitative risk analysis assigns descriptive ratings such as high, medium, or low to risks based on their likelihood and impact without numerical calculations.

Including MTTR/MTBF (A) and ALE/ARO (D) are quantitative methods using metrics. Risk registers (B) document risks but don’t specify analysis type.

Qualitative and quantitative risk methods are fundamental in SY0-701 risk management【6:Chapter 17†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A honeypot is a security mechanism set up to attract and detect potential attackers by simulating vulnerable assets. By hosting a part of the infrastructure online with known vulnerabilities that appear to be company assets, the company can observe and analyze the behavior of attackersconducting reconnaissance. This approach allows the company to get alerts and gather intelligence on potential threats.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly on threat detection techniques such as honeypots​​.

An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage. However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware, or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 9: Network Security, page 449 1

A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user’s workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user’s workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.

RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.

HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .

A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References =

How to access a remote server using a jump host

Jump server

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

[What is an HSM?]

[Load balancing (computing)]

[What is Load Balancing?]