220-1202 Sample Questions Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

End-user education is crucial after malware removal to prevent recurrence. Teaching safe browsing habits and security awareness completes the remediation cycle.

Mark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manualstates:

“Educating the user after malware remediation is part of the CompTIA malware response methodology. This includes training on phishing and safe practices.”

A VPN creates a secure tunnel from the user’s home network into the corporate network, providing the necessary routing and access controls for the laptop to reach internal file servers. Without a VPN, the device remains outside the corporate LAN and cannot directly reach protected resources.

A VPN creates a secure tunnel from the user’s home network into the corporate network, providing the necessary routing and access controls for the laptop to reach internal file servers. Without a VPN, the device remains outside the corporate LAN and cannot directly reach protected resources.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Spear phishingtargets a specific individual using personalized tactics, as seen in emails impersonating a CEO to deceive a secretary.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“Spear phishing targets specific individuals or roles within an organization using tailored messages to increase success rates.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The correct answer isVNC (Virtual Network Computing). VNC is a graphical desktop-sharing system that uses the Remote Frame Buffer protocol (RFB) to remotely control another computer. It is platform-independent and widely supported on Linux, which makes it ideal for providinginteractive remote support for a Linux-based operating system. It allows the technician not only to view the remote desktop session but also tocontrol it, fulfilling the need to see and interact with the user’s session.

A. VPN(Virtual Private Network) creates a secure tunnel to a network but doesnot provide desktop sharing or session controlby itself.

C. SSH(Secure Shell) provides secure command-line access to Unix/Linux systems but does not offergraphical desktop interaction, which is a requirement in this case.

D. RDP(Remote Desktop Protocol) is primarily a Microsoft protocol, and although it can be made to work on Linux, it isnot natively supported on legacy Linux systems, and thusless suitablethan VNC in this scenario.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:

Objective 1.8 – Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.

Under this objective, candidates are expected to be familiar with remote access technologies, includingRDP, SSH, and VNC, and understand their appropriate uses and limitations on different platforms such as Windows and Linux.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In emotionally sensitive situations, it is critical that the technicianprojects confidenceand maintains a calm, positive demeanor to reassure the customer.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Confidence and empathy are key when working with distressed users. Demonstrating competence can help ease the customer's anxiety.”

Screensaver lockshelp protect unattended workstations.

BIOS passwordsprevent unauthorized changes at startup or during boot.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“Applying a BIOS password adds a pre-boot security layer. Screensaver locks help protect logged-in sessions during idle times.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Event Viewer is the best tool to analyze the root cause of service failures in Windows. It provides detailed logs from system processes, including errors, warnings, and crash reports related to services and applications. When a service starts and stops unexpectedly, Event Viewer will often record the cause, such as dependency failures or access violations.

B. Task Manager shows active processes but doesn't retain logs or causes of failure.

C. Internet Options is used for configuring browser settings, not troubleshooting services.

D. Process Explorer is powerful but more suited for live monitoring and detailed process trees, not post-failure log analysis.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If a system becomes unresponsive while opening a specific spreadsheet, the issue is likely tied to the file’s size or the complexity of its content (e.g., embedded formulas, macros, or graphics). High memory utilization caused by the file can lead to temporary freezing or application "Not Responding" messages. Checking the spreadsheet's file size and monitoring system memory in Task Manager will help isolate performance bottlenecks.

A. Anti-malware logs are important for security troubleshooting but less likely relevant to spreadsheet-related performance issues.

B. Workstation repair is for system-wide problems and not necessary for a single-file issue.

C. Bandwidth relates to network usage and wouldn’t impact opening a local file.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Windows doesn't natively support many Linux file systems (like ext4).Reformatting to exFATmakes the drive readable/writable on both Linux and Windows.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“For cross-platform compatibility, exFAT is recommended as it supports large files and is recognized by Windows, macOS, and Linux (with exFAT drivers).”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Cloud-based software often enforcesdevice limitsper license. Before reinstallation or switching software, checking license allocations is the most logical first step.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Many cloud apps enforce user or device count restrictions. When an install fails, check licensing before troubleshooting other areas.”

When DHCP isn’t enabled, static IPs must be assigned manually, so the engineering team provides the IP details.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“If DHCP is unavailable, technicians need the static IP configuration to connect devices to the network.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Virtualization settings are typically found within the BIOS/UEFI firmware configuration. To prevent unauthorized users from changing these settings, the technician should set a BIOS password. This ensures only administrators with the password can access or modify BIOS settings, including virtualization support.

B. The guest account is a user-level feature in Windows and doesn’t control BIOS access.

C. A screen lock prevents casual access to the desktop but doesn’t protect firmware settings.

D. AutoRun controls how media and devices behave when inserted — unrelated to BIOS security.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The issue described—“domain cannot be found” despite the ability to ping the server and access the internet—indicates aDNS resolution problem, not a network connectivity issue. The workstation is currently usingpublic DNS servers (8.8.8.8 and 1.1.1.1)whichcannot resolve internal domain names, such as the ones used in Active Directory environments. To resolve this, the technician needs tochange the DNS settings to point to the internal DNS server, which in most domain setups is thedomain controller itself (likely 192.168.1.10 in this case).

Here’s the breakdown of the incorrect options:

B. Assign a static IP address: The IP is already assigned and functioning; the device can ping and reach the network and internet.

C. Configure a subnet mask: The subnet mask is appropriate for the network range (Class C /24).

D. Update the default gateway: The gateway is valid and allows internet access; this is not the issue.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:

Objective 1.8 – Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.

Under this objective, candidates must know how to troubleshoot OS-based network configurations, includingproper DNS settings in domain environments.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Before any change is implemented, it must bedocumentedas part of change management procedures. This ensures transparency, review, and tracking.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Documenting a change is the first step in change management. This includes defining the scope, purpose, impact, and implementation plan before approval or scheduling.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw in software or hardware that is unknown to the vendor or has not yet been patched. If this vulnerability is exploited before the vendor has issued a fix or patch, it becomes a Zero-day exploit. These attacks are highly dangerous because they take advantage of the absence of defenses due to the lack of awareness or mitigation options.

A. Spoofing is a form of impersonation, not necessarily tied to unpatched vulnerabilities.

B. Brute-force attacks rely on repeatedly guessing credentials and are not related to software flaws.

C. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks are meant to overwhelm systems and don't necessarily exploit unknown vulnerabilities.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The su (substitute user) command is used in Linux to switch to another user account, most commonly to escalate privileges by switching to the root (administrator) account. It allows administrative tasks to be performed in a terminal session.

A. runas is a Windows command for executing a program under another user's context.

B. cmcl is not a valid Linux or administrative command.

C. net user is a Windows command for managing local user accounts.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This scenario describes a rogue access point — a malicious or unauthorized wireless access point that uses the same SSID as the legitimate network. Users may connect to it unknowingly, which can result in limited network access, data interception, or redirection of traffic. The inability to reach internal file servers supports this being an unauthorized AP with no connection to internal resources.

A. A DNS issue would impact name resolution, not connectivity to file servers directly.

B. VLAN issues generally affect segmentation, not mimic SSID problems.

C. An incorrect IP address could cause connectivity issues, but not in the presence of a malicious AP broadcasting the same SSID.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

BitLocker is Microsoft’s full disk encryption technology built into Windows Pro and Enterprise editions. It encrypts the entire drive, protecting data if the device is lost or stolen. BitLocker can use TPM (Trusted Platform Module) and can be configured with PINs or USB keys for added security.

A. Active Directory is for centralized user and policy management in domains.

B. NTFS is the file system format and doesn't provide encryption by itself.

C. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts individual files or folders, not the entire drive.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows workstations to boot over the network and download an OS image from a server. It is ideal for automating mass deployments using baseline images across many machines without the need for physical media.

A. An ISO is a disk image file but requires mounting or physical media.

B. Secure Boot is a security feature, not a method of deploying OS images.

C. USB requires manual installation and is not suitable for automated deployment at scale.

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions, Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.

A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.

B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.

C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

VPN clients often create virtual network adapters. If the software wasn't uninstalled properly or crashed during install, leftover (often hidden) virtual adapters can prevent reinstallation. The proper solution is to delete hidden network adapters using Device Manager (with “Show hidden devices” enabled).

A. OS updates won’t fix a leftover driver or adapter issue.

B. Mapping an adapter to the software is not a standard or viable solution.

C. Firmware updates apply to physical adapters, not virtual VPN adapters.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

FAT32cannot support files larger than 4GB.NTFSsupports large file sizes and is compatible across Windows systems, making it the correct choice for transferring a 4.57GB file.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“NTFS is the preferred file system for large file transfers within Windows. FAT32 has a 4GB file size limit, which makes it unsuitable for modern use cases involving large files.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The ext4 (Fourth Extended Filesystem) is the most widely used default filesystem in modern Linux distributions. It is designed for high performance, scalability, and reliability, and is supported by all mainstream Linux kernels.

A. exFAT is used for cross-platform external drives, not native Linux systems.

B. APFS is Apple's proprietary filesystem for macOS and iOS.

D. NTFS is the default filesystem for Windows, not Linux.

Hash values(like SHA256) are published by vendors to verify file integrity. A match confirms the file hasn’t been tampered with.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use hash values to ensure downloaded software matches the vendor’s published version and hasn't been modified.”

TheLocal Users and Groups Manager (lusrmgr.msc)is the utility for managing user accounts, including renaming the default Administrator.

FromQuentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“The lusrmgr.msc snap-in allows renaming and managing local user accounts, including the default administrator.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

AnNDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement)is used to ensure confidentiality of sensitive company information, especially when interacting with external parties.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“An NDA ensures that confidential information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, especially important in external communications.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An in-place upgrade is the fastest and most efficient way to upgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 11 while keeping all user data, applications, and settings intact. This method is often used when the hardware meets Windows 11 requirements and no system reconfiguration is necessary.

A. gpupdate is used to refresh Group Policy settings — unrelated to OS upgrades.

B. Image deployment typically replaces the current OS and may not retain user data unless specifically customized.

C. A clean install requires formatting the drive and starting fresh, which removes all data.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A low-level format (also referred to as a zero-fill or full format) writes over every sector on a storage device, effectively destroying the existing data and making recovery nearly impossible. Unlike degaussing, which renders the drive unusable, a low-level format maintains the integrity of the device, allowing it to be repurposed or reused.

A. Deleting partitions does not fully erase data; it only removes references in the partition table.

B. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts files but does not securely wipe them.

D. Degaussing destroys the magnetic structure of a drive, making it inoperable and not reusable.

This is part of theuser educationstep after a security incident to prevent future occurrences.

FromQuentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“User education and awareness is a crucial part of preventing phishing attacks. After an incident, it is vital to train users on recognizing suspicious messages.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

UPS batteries are heavy and often located at the bottom of racks to maintain balance. Safe removal requires the use of correct lifting techniques to avoid injury. OSHA and workplace safety standards emphasize ergonomic handling when dealing with heavy equipment.

A. Fire suppression readiness is important for fire safety but not specifically relevant to battery removal.

C. Antistatic bags are for electronic components, not heavy battery modules.

D. A face mask is not generally necessary unless there is a chemical leak, which is not indicated here.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Virtualizationallows the legacy OS to be run in a virtual machine (VM) on top of the newer OS. This method provides backward compatibility without requiring outdated operating systems on physical hardware.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Using virtualization is a preferred method when legacy applications are needed after migrating to newer operating systems. It allows legacy environments to exist securely within a modern OS framework.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Thefirst stepin troubleshooting degraded mobile performance is typically arestart. This clears RAM and stops background processes that might be causing issues.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Before taking invasive measures like a factory reset, always restart the device. A reboot clears temporary files and can significantly improve responsiveness.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

TheDo Not Disturbsetting in Windows Notification settings allows users to suppress all notification banners and sounds during presentations or video calls.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Use Windows ‘Do Not Disturb’ to prevent notifications from interrupting full-screen apps like video conferencing.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows an organization to enforce security policies, such as denying network access to jailbroken/rooted devices.

From the All-in-One Exam Guide by Travis Everett and Andrew Hutz:

“MDM software allows administrators to monitor, manage, and secure mobile devices connected to enterprise networks. One key feature is the detection and denial of access for rooted or jailbroken devices”.

Quentin Docter also confirms:

“An MDM solution can check if a device has been rooted and prevent it from accessing the network, ensuring compliance with corporate security standards”.

Azero-day vulnerabilitydemands an emergency change to quickly secure the system, even if downtime is needed.

FromMike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“Emergency changes bypass standard scheduling to quickly address critical vulnerabilities that pose immediate risks.” .

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

exFATis the only listed file system that supports both read and write access across Windows, macOS, and Linux (with appropriate drivers). It’s optimized for flash storage and external drives.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“exFAT is a lightweight file system with cross-platform read/write support, ideal for use on removable drives when compatibility is essential.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Resource Monitor provides real-time monitoring of system performance and resource usage, including CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. It helps technicians identify performance bottlenecks (e.g., high memory or CPU usage) that can cause slowdowns in applications over time without producing crash errors.

A. Reliability history logs application crashes or errors — not helpful if the app doesn’t crash.

B. Computer Management is a broad utility with limited real-time monitoring capability.

D. Disk is too vague — tools like CHKDSK can help with disk errors but not general performance degradation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To work remotely without physically transporting a workstation, the user needs:

C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol): Allows graphical remote access to a Windows PC at the office.

D. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes a secure tunnel to access the corporate network remotely, making the internal PC reachable.

A. SPICE is used in virtual machine environments and is not typically used for end-user remote desktop access.

B. SSH is a text-based remote access tool used mostly for Linux systems.

E. RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) is used by IT administrators for support — not end-user remote access.

F. WinRM is used for Windows remote management via PowerShell, not for full desktop access.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Videoconferencingplatforms allow real-time face-to-face communication and are ideal for collaborative training sessions involving remote employees.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Videoconferencing tools such as Zoom or Microsoft Teams are specifically designed for real-time communication and training, making them ideal for executive or large-group meetings.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Whalingis a form of phishing that targets high-profile individuals or involves pretending to be them (e.g., CEOs) to trick lower-level employees into transferring funds or sensitive data.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Whaling is a phishing tactic targeting executives or masquerading as one. The attacker crafts emails that exploit authority and urgency to manipulate recipients.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Event Viewer is the primary tool used to investigate system-level errors and logs, including BSODs. When a BSOD occurs, Windows logs the error codes and associated system behavior under “System” logs in Event Viewer. This allows the technician to review crash events, identify error codes (e.g., STOP codes), and pinpoint hardware or driver issues.

B. Performance Monitor is used for real-time performance tracking and trend analysis, not crash logs.

C. System Information displays system specs but not crash logs or events.

D. Device Manager shows device status and driver issues but doesn’t retain error logs related to BSODs.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

These symptoms strongly suggest malware activity—likely from the newly installed app. The first action should be torun a malware scanto detect and isolate malicious software.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Signs of malware infection include rapid battery drain and overheating. The first step should be a malware scan using trusted mobile antivirus apps.”