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CPIM-8.0 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

A company with stable demand that uses exponential smoothing to forecast demand would typically use a:

Options:

A.

low alpha value.

B.

low beta value.

C.

high beta value.

D.

high alpha value.

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Questions 5

A security practitioner has been asked to investigate the presence of customer Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on a social media website. Where does the practitioner begin?

Options:

A.

Review logs of all user's social media activity.

B.

Review the organizational social media policy.

C.

Initiate the organization's incident response plan.

D.

Determine a list of information assets that contain PII.

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Questions 6

A company that uses concurrent engineering is likely to experience which of the following outcomes in the first period of a product's life cycle?

Options:

A.

Fewer product design changes

B.

An increase in obsolete inventory

C.

More accurate forecasting

D.

Conflicts between purchasing and engineering

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Questions 7

Privacy requirements across national boundaries MOST often require protection of which data types?

Options:

A.

Contact information for elected officials and local and national government web content

B.

Contact information related to minors, medical records, and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

C.

Contact information for board members, proprietary trade secrets, and income statements

D.

Contact information related to medical doctors, Protected Health Information (PHI), and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

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Questions 8

Broadcast traffic is causing network performance degradation of sensitive equipment.

Which of the following methods is used to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting availability?

Options:

A.

Place the sensitive equipment behind a firewall to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

B.

Implement Quality of Service (QoS) on network switches to throttle the sensitive equipment traffic.

C.

Move the sensitive equipment to a different switch port to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

D.

Use Network Access Control (NAC) to prevent the broadcast traffic from broadcasting.

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Questions 9

Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

Options:

A.

Demand time fence (DTF)

B.

Bill of resources

C.

Product routing

D.

Safety capacity

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Questions 10

Under which of the following conditions is excess capacity most likely a good substitute for safety stock?

Options:

A.

The cost of excess capacity is less than the cost of an additional unit of safety stock in the same period.

B.

The cost to maintain one unit in inventory for a year is less than the direct labor cost.

C.

The service level with safety stock is more than the service level with excess capacity.

D.

Lead time for the product is longer than customers are willing to wait.

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Questions 11

Which of the following categories of web services testing describes correctness testing of web service security functionality?

Options:

A.

Focuses on ensuring that security operations performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

B.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

C.

Ensures that individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focuses on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

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Questions 12

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and is tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

Options:

A.

An increase in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

B.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and DNS queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and DNS queries to blocked sites.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration in a full-scale disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

Sign off by the Chief Information Officer (CIO)

B.

Financial cost of the organization

C.

Business interruption

D.

Available Information Technology (IT) hardware

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Questions 14

What is the MAIN benefit of network segmentation?

Options:

A.

Limiting data transfer

B.

Limiting cyberattack damage

C.

Limiting privilege access

D.

Limiting network addresses

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Questions 15

A startup organization has been growing rapidly and is planning to open a new office on another continent. Until infrastructure for the new office can be built, the organization is setting up remote access to the existing network. Which of the following is the MOST important secure implementation to complete during the expansion?

Options:

A.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B.

Cybersecurity training

C.

Password management software

D.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

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Questions 16

When implementing solutions for information security continuous monitoring, which method provides the MOST interoperability between security tools?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD)

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

C.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

D.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

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Questions 17

The help desk received a call from a user noting the digital certificate on the organization-issued security identification card was invalid. Which is the BEST reason the certificate stopped working?

Options:

A.

The user's certificate was compromised by the public key of the user.

B.

The public key of the Certificate Authority (CA) is known to attackers.

C.

The user's certificate was absent from the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

D.

The user's certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.

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Questions 18

Disaster Recovery (DR) training plan outcomes should have which KEY quality?

Options:

A.

Comprehensible

B.

Identifiable

C.

Measurable

D.

Editable

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Questions 19

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

Options:

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

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Questions 20

A company is having trouble with raw material deliveries and has decided to develop a supplier certification program. The certification process most appropriately would start with which of the following suppliers?

Options:

A.

Suppliers of "A“ classified items

B.

Suppliers recently ISO 9000 certified

C.

Suppliers with the worst performance records

D.

Suppliers with vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

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Questions 21

When resolving conflicts, which canon within the ISC2 Code of Ethics requires members to consider duties to principals and Individuals?

Options:

A.

Maintain the privacy and confidentiality of information obtained.

B.

Advance and protect the profession.

C.

Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.

D.

Maintain competency in their respective fields.

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Questions 22

A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Something one does

B.

Something one is

C.

Something one has

D.

Something one knows

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Questions 23

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

Options:

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

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Questions 24

The horizon for forecasts that are input to the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process should be long enough that:

Options:

A.

cumulative forecast deviation approaches zero.

B.

planned product launches can be incorporated.

C.

required resources can be properly planned.

D.

supply constraints can be resolved.

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Questions 25

A product manager wishes to store sensitive development data using a cloud storage vendor while maintaining exclusive control over passwords and encryption credentials. What is the BEST method for meeting these requirements?

Options:

A.

Local self-encryption with passwords managed by a local password manager

B.

Client-side encryption keys and passwords generated dynamically during cloud access sessions

C.

Zero-knowledge encryption keys provided by the cloud storage vendor

D.

Passwords generated by a local password manager during cloud access sessions and encrypted in transit

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Questions 26

An organization is updating an Application Programming Interface (API) to support requests coming from mobile applications distributed on public application stores. The API’s primary function is to supply confidential documents when users request them within the mobile application. Which approach would BEST respond to this use case?

Options:

A.

Require that the user supplies their credential to access confidential documents.

B.

Require a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection to the organization's network to access confidential documents.

C.

Implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to validate the identity of the user requesting access to confidential documents.

D.

Implement Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0 to require the users to request permission to access confidential documents.

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Questions 27

Which of the following measurements indicates there may be bias In the forecast model?

Options:

A.

Mean absolute deviation (MAD)

B.

Standard deviation

C.

Tracking signal

D.

Variance

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Questions 28

What is the HIGHEST security concern on trans-border data?

Options:

A.

Organizations that are not in highly regulated industries do not have the resources to achieve compliance.

B.

Cyber transactions occur in an ever-changing legal and regulatory landscape without fixed borders.

C.

Information security practitioners are not Subject Matter Experts (SME) for all legal and compliance requirements.

D.

Organizations must follow all laws and regulations related to the use of the Internet.

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Questions 29

Which of the following are steps involved in the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Dissemination, review, revocation

B.

Dissemination, rotation, revocation

C.

Provisioning, review, revocation

D.

Provisioning, Dissemination, revocation

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Questions 30

Which of the following mechanisms should a practitioner focus on for the MOST effective information security continuous monitoring?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated methods for data collection and reporting where possible

B.

Updating security plans, security assessment reports, hardware, and software inventories

C.

Defining specific methods for monitoring that will maintain or improve security posture

D.

Collecting risk metrics from teams, such as business, testing, QA, development, and operations with security controls

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements characterizes a pull system In distribution management?

Options:

A.

Each warehouse makes its own replenishment decisions.

B.

It uses distribution requirements planning(DRP).

C.

It uses uniform performance measures.

D.

It uses fair-share allocation.

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Questions 32

Which of the following planes directs the flow of data within a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Data

C.

Application

D.

Control

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Questions 33

Which compensating control is the MOST effective to prevent fraud within an organization?

Options:

A.

Principle of least privilege

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Separation of privilege

D.

Pre-employment background checks

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Questions 34

Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

Options:

A.

Demand time fence (DTF)

B.

Bill of resources

C.

Product routing

D.

Safety capacity

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Questions 35

Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for a business unit with a low relative market share in a high-growth market?

Options:

A.

Using excess cash generated to fund other business units

B.

Investing in the acquisition of competitors

C.

Investing in projects to maintain market share

D.

Designing product improvements to protect market share

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Questions 36

Which of the following can allow an attacker to bypass authentication?

Options:

A.

Response tampering

B.

Machine enumeration

C.

User agent manipulation

D.

Social engineering

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Questions 37

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

Options:

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

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Questions 38

A low-cost provider strategy works best when which of the following conditions are met?

Options:

A.

Price competition among rivals is similar.

B.

Buyers are more price sensitive.

C.

There are many ways to achieve product differentiation.

D.

There are few industry newcomers.

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Questions 39

Which of the following factors is the MOST important consideration for a security team when determining when determining whether cryptographic erasure can be used for disposal of a device?

Options:

A.

If the methods meet the International organization For Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001.

B.

If the data on the device exceeds what cryptographic erasure can safely process.

C.

If the device was encrypted prior using cipher block chaining.

D.

If the security policies allow for cryptographic erasure based on the data stored on the device.

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Questions 40

Which of the following design considerations would offer the BEST protection against unauthorized access to the facility?

Options:

A.

Allowing only one person to enter at a time

B.

Auditing access logs annually

C.

Limiting access to regular business hours only

D.

Establishing entry points from public areas only

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Questions 41

When conducting a thorough risk assessment that involves identifying system threats and vulnerabilities and determining the potential for adverse effects on individuals, what additional factors MUST the organization consider?

Options:

A.

Developing a contingency roadmap that will provide processes for each identified and documented risk element

B.

Assessing the possible impact from unauthorized access on the organization's cyber insurance policies

C.

Defining which systems are maintained by third parties and whether their control processes have been included as part of the risk assessment

D.

Determining the likelihood and magnitude of harm from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction of the system

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Questions 42

An organization is looking to integrate security concepts into the code development process early in development to detect issues before the software is launched. Which advantage does the organization gain from using Static Application Security Testing (SAST) techniques versus dynamic application security testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Allows tailored techniques

B.

Executes code to detect issues

C.

Allows for earlier vulnerability detection

D.

Simulates attacker patterns

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Questions 43

To mitigate risk related to natural disasters, an organization has a separate location with systems and communications in place. Data must be restored on the remote systems before they are ready for use. What type of remote site is this?

Options:

A.

Cold Site

B.

Mobile Site

C.

Hot Site

D.

Warm Sit

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Questions 44

An organizations is developing a new software package for a financial institution. What is the FIRST step when modeling threats to this new software package?

Options:

A.

Diagram the data flows of the software package.

B.

Document the configuration of the software package.

C.

Prioritize risks to determine the mitigation strategy.

D.

Evaluate appropriate countermeasure to be implemented.

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Questions 45

Which of the following BEST represents a security benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

Improved threat detection

B.

Flexible firewall configuration

C.

Network availability

D.

Improved threat prevention

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Questions 46

An organization has a call center that uses a Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP) system. The conversations are sensitive, and the organization is concerned about employees other than the call agents accessing these conversations. What is the MOST effective additional security measure to make?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the call agents are using an additional authentication method.

B.

Implement a Network Access Control (NAC) solution.

C.

Ensure that the voice media is using Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol.

D.

Segment the voice network and add Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFW).

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Questions 47

In restoring the entire corporate email system after a major outage and data loss, an email administrator reads a few email message exchanges between the human resources manager and a candidate for an open position. Which of the following BEST describes the behavior of the email administrator, and why?

Options:

A.

The behavior is ethical, because the email administrator was not deliberately looking for the email and only accidentally read the emails.

B.

The behavior is ethical, because the email administrator read the emails to confirm that the email system was properly restored.

C.

The behavior is not ethical, because the email administrator exceeded his or her privilege and trust in reading the email messages.

D.

The behavior is not ethical, because the email administrator should have informed the manager about the restoration in advance.

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Questions 48

Long lead-time items with stable demand would best be supported by a supply chain:

Options:

A.

using a pull system.

B.

linked through an enterprise resources planning (ERP) system.

C.

designed to be responsive.

D.

positioning inventory close to the consumer.

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Questions 49

Management should support investments in new process technologies that:

Options:

A.

require minimal changes in existing systems, procedures, and skills.

B.

have been recommended by technical experts and equipment suppliers.

C.

provide significant cost-reduction opportunities for the company's current products.

D.

provide long-term competitive advantage with acceptable financial risk.

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Questions 50

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

Options:

A.

List and evaluate IAM available products.

B.

Evaluate the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

C.

Evaluate business needs.

D.

Engage the sponsor and identify key stakeholders.

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Questions 51

When performing threat modeling using Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE), which of the following is an example of a repudiation threat?

Options:

A.

Using someone else's account

B.

Distributed Denial-Of-Service (DDoS)

C.

SQL Injection (SQLi)

D.

Modifying a file

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Questions 52

A financial organization is using an internally developed application. The internal software development team has to adhere to the coding standards of the Software Development Cycle (SDLC). For applications whose functionality is exposed through the public Internet, this requirement consists of testing the application for potential vulnerabilities before it is deployed into production. What is the BEST type of vulnerability test to perform?

Options:

A.

Web application unit test

B.

Online application development test

C.

Web application penetration test

D.

Online application assurance test

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Questions 53

When designing a production cell, which of the following items would be the most important consideration?

Options:

A.

Theunit per hour requirement for the production cell to meet the sales forecast

B.

Theflow of materials into the cell and sequencing of operations to minimize total cycle time

C.

Theoutput rate for the first operation and move time after the last workstation

D.

Thetakt time requirement for each operator to meet the monthly production goals of the plant

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Questions 54

A newer automotive supplier has not fully developed its information technology (IT) systems. The supplier has Just received a contract from a large automotive manufacturer which requires the supplier to use electronic data interchange (EDI) transactions for receiving orders, sending advance ship notices (ASNs), and receiving invoice payments. What strategy can the supplier adopt to immediately meet the EDI requirements?

Options:

A.

Select, install, and implement EDI software.

B.

Use current third-party logistics provider (3PL) to handle the EDI transactions.

C.

Claim hardship and ask the automotive manufacturer for a waiver.

D.

Negotiate using email as an alternative with the customer.

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Questions 55

Which of the following MUST exist for an activity to be considered an audit?

Options:

A.

An auditor that is in no way employed, connected or associated to the organization being audited

B.

Stored Personally Identifiable Information (PII) that an organization has a legal obligation to protect

C.

A predefined standard and systematic approach to test the application of that standard

D.

A certified member of a professional body qualified in the area of inspection

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Questions 56

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

Options:

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

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Questions 57

What activity is a useful element in the change process?

Options:

A.

Creating short-term wins

B.

Calculating a break-even point

C.

Performing a SWOT analysis

D.

Developing key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 58

An organization has recently been hacked. To prevent future breaches, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) hires a third-party vendor to perform penetration testing on the network. Once complete, the vendor provides to the CISO a final report generated by a high-quality vulnerability scanner. The CISO rejects the report as incomplete.

Why is the vendor's penetration test considered incomplete?

Options:

A.

The vendor should have attempted to exploit the identified vulnerabilities.

B.

The vendor should also provide a guide to remediate the identified vulnerabilities.

C.

The vendor should have provided a risk report of vulnerabilities found.

D.

The vendor should have worked closely with network engineers to understand the network infrastructure better.

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Questions 59

What is the PRIMARY benefit an organization obtains by adapting a cybersecurity framework to their cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

A structured risk management process

B.

A common set of security capabilities

C.

A structured cybersecurity program

D.

A common language and methodology

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Questions 60

An order winner during the growth stage of a product's life cycle is:

Options:

A.

variety.

B.

availability.

C.

dependability.

D.

price.

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Questions 61

An example of an assignable cause of variation in process performance is:

Options:

A.

power fluctuation during machine operation.

B.

machine vibration during operation.

C.

incorrect setup of a machine by the operator.

D.

changes in temperature in the machine shop.

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Questions 62

Which technology is BEST suited to establish a secure communications link between an individual’s home office and the organization’s Local Area Network (LAN)?

Options:

A.

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN)

B.

Representational State Transfer (REST)

C.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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Questions 63

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use to test whether servers are set up according to the organization's documented policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Questions 64

What document MOST likely states an organization’s values?

Options:

A.

Union labor agreement

B.

Information protection policy

C.

Code of conduct

D.

Management standards

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Questions 65

What is the MOST important security benefit of comprehensive asset management?

Options:

A.

Enforces information security policies

B.

Supports understanding of enterprise security posture

C.

Supports locating security components at end of life

D.

Enforces network security access controls

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Questions 66

A security administrator of a large organization is using Mobile Device Management (MDM) technology for protecting mobile devices. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that only company-approved mobile software can be deployed?

Options:

A.

Application blacklisting

B.

Application inventory

C.

Application digital signature

D.

Controlled app store

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Questions 67

Reducing distribution network inventory days of supply will have which of the following Impacts?

Options:

A.

Increase turnovers and increase cash-to-cash cycle time.

B.

Increase turnovers and reduce cash-to-cash cycle time.

C.

Decrease turnovers and reduce cash-to-cash cycle time.

D.

Decrease turnovers and increase cash-to-cash cycle time.

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Questions 68

Which of the following may authorize an organization to monitor an employee’s company computer and phone usage?

Options:

A.

Signed Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

B.

Signed Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

C.

ISC2 Code of Ethics

D.

Suspicious that a crime is being committed

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Questions 69

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach.

Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Common configuration enumerations

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

D.

National vulnerability database

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Questions 70

In a Zero Trust (ZT) model, where should the enforcement component be placed and why?

Options:

A.

Between the policy engine and the trust engine, because it enforces security policies

B.

As close to the workload as possible, because it impacts authorization decisions

C.

As close to the workload as possible, because it impacts authentication decisions

D.

Between the data stores and the trust engine, because it improves security policies

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Questions 71

What function prevents unauthorized devices from gaining access to a network?

Options:

A.

Network Access Control (NAC)

B.

Storage Area Network (SAN)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Software-Defined Network (SDN)

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Questions 72

Once an organization has identified and properly classified their information and data assets, policies and procedures are created to establish requirements for the handling, protection, retention, and disposal of those assets. Which solution is the BEST method to enforce data usage policies, discover sensitive data, monitor the use of sensitive data, and ensure regulatory compliance and intellectual property protection?

Options:

A.

Application whitelisting

B.

Data governance

C.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

D.

Intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS)

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Questions 73

A security analyst modifies the organization’s baselines to align the controls more closely with specific security and privacy requirements. Which security concept is this an example of?

Options:

A.

Mitigating

B.

Tailoring

C.

Scoping

D.

Compensating

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Questions 74

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

Options:

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

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Questions 75

When implementing a data classification program, Which is MOST important for measuring businesss impact?

Options:

A.

Data classification program being rolled out in accordance with policies and procedures

B.

Measuring the size of the data set to understand scoping for compliance requirements

C.

The adverse effect of data leakage

D.

The early appointment of data custodians

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Questions 76

Reducing distribution network inventory days of supply will have which of the following Impacts?

Options:

A.

Increase turnovers and increase cash-to-cash cycle time.

B.

Increase turnovers and reduce cash-to-cash cycle time.

C.

Decrease turnovers and reduce cash-to-cash cycle time.

D.

Decrease turnovers and increase cash-to-cash cycle time.

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Questions 77

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to perform what function for computers joining the network?

Options:

A.

Ensure all networking components communicate with each other.

B.

Ensure that all approved devices can join the network.

C.

Restrict access to the network based on Media Access Control (MAC) address or Internet Protocol (IP) address.

D.

Restrict the time and date that computers are allowed to connect to the organization’s network.

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Questions 78

While conducting an information asset audit, it was determined that several devices were running unpatched Operating Systems (0S). Further review Indicated the OS was no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following BEST indicates the appropriate asset lifecycle stage of the devices?

Options:

A.

Maintain

B.

Modify

C.

Procure

D.

Dispose

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Questions 79

An organization uses an external Identity Provider (IdP) to secure internal, external, or third-party applications. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Unavailability of access logs

B.

Integrity of authentication mechanism

C.

Compromise of service

D.

Deletion of federated tokens

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Questions 80

Which of the below represent the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Supply chain failure

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

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Questions 81

The production plan defines which of the following targets?

Options:

A.

Sales forecast

B.

Quantities of each product to be produced

C.

Level of output to be produced

D.

Business plans for the company

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Questions 82

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user's hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

Options:

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.

B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.

C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.

D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.

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Questions 83

Which of the following Secure Shell (SSH) remote access practices is MOST suited for scripted functions?

Options:

A.

Requiring Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B.

Using public key-based authentication method

C.

Restricting authentication by Internet Protocol (IP) address

D.

Implementing access credentials management tools

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Questions 84

An organization is preparing for a natural disaster, and management is creating a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP). What is the BEST input for prioritizing the restoration of vital Information Technology (IT) services?

Options:

A.

By priority as defined by the critical assets list

B.

The latest Continuity Of Operations Plan (COOP)

C.

Senior management assessment and approval

D.

The latest Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

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Questions 85

An organization’s system engineer arranged a meeting with the system owner and a few major stakeholders to finalize the feasibility analysis for a new application.

Which of the following topics will MOST likely be on the agenda?

Options:

A.

Results of the preliminary cost-benefit studies

B.

Design of the application system and database processes

C.

Communication of procedures and reporting requirements

D.

Identification of inter-application dependencies

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Questions 86

An agency has the requirement to establish a direct data connection with another organization for the purpose of exchanging data between the agency and organization systems. There is a requirement for a formal agreement between the agency and organization. Which source of standards can the system owners use to define the roles and responsibilities along with details for the technical and security requirements?

Options:

A.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO)

B.

European Committee for Electrotechnical Standardization

C.

Caribbean Community Regional Organization for Standards and Quality

D.

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

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Questions 87

Health information stored in paper form may be destroyed using which of the following methods?

Options:

A.

Shredding

B.

Degaussing

C.

De-identification

D.

Archiving

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Questions 88

Which of the following inventory management techniques is most responsive to changes in demand levels?

Options:

A.

Two-bin system

B.

Periodic review system

C.

Cycle counting

D.

ABC classification

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Questions 89

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

Options:

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

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Questions 90

Typically, rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP) in a job shop environment would review which of the following work centers to determine the ability to execute the plan?

Options:

A.

Critical work centers only

B.

Gateway work centers only

C.

Final assembly work centers only

D.

All work centers

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Questions 91

Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

Options:

A.

Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.

B.

Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

C.

Work centers operate using decentralized control.

D.

Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.

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Questions 92

An organization implemented a threat modeling program focusing on key assets. However, after a short time it became clear that the organization was having difficulty executing the threat modeling program.

Which approach will MOST likely have been easier to execute?

Options:

A.

System-centric approach

B.

Attacker-centric approach

C.

Asset-centric approach

D.

Developer-centric approach

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Questions 93

When implementing solutions for information security continuous monitoring, which method provides the MOST interoperability between security tools?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD)

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

C.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

D.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

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Questions 94

An organization is opening a new data center and is looking for a facilities security officer to provide best practices for the site and facility design. The two major requirements for this organization are not to attract undue attention and avoid proximity to potentially hazardous sites.

What site selection considerations do these requirements BEST fall under when deciding on the location for a facility?

Options:

A.

Visibility and natural disasters

B.

Visibility and locale

C.

Visibility and hazardous sites

D.

Visibility and transportation

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Questions 95

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Questions 96

Which of the following documents is the BEST reference to describe application functionality?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

B.

System security plan

C.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA) report

D.

Vulnerability assessment report

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Questions 97

When resolving conflicts, which canon within the ISC2 Code of Ethics requires members to consider duties to principals and Individuals?

Options:

A.

Maintain the privacy and confidentiality of information obtained.

B.

Advance and protect the profession.

C.

Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.

D.

Maintain competency in their respective fields.

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Questions 98

To gain entry into a building, individuals are required to use a palm scan. This is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Administrative detective

B.

Physical preventive

C.

Physical detective

D.

Administrative preventive

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Questions 99

The development team wants new commercial software to Integrate into the current systems. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

B.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

C.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

D.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

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Questions 100

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using federated identity?

Options:

A.

The administrative burden is increased

B.

The application has access to the user’s credentials

C.

Applications may need complex modifications to implement

D.

A compromised credential provides access to all the user’s applications

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Questions 101

An audit report of security operations has listed some anomalies with third parties being granted access to the internal systems and data without any restrictions.

Which of the following will BEST help remediate this issue?

Options:

A.

Provide access restrictions for resources stored in a low-volume network or subnetwork location.

B.

Provide access restrictions for resources stored on a network that uses a unique platform.

C.

Provide access restrictions for resources stored in a high-volume network or subnetwork location.

D.

Provide access restrictions for resources stored on a network or on a subnetwork.

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Questions 102

A security assessor has been engaged to perform a penetration test on control system components located on a shipping vessel. The individuals on the ship do not have any knowledge of how the component is configured or its internal workings. Which of the following test types does this scenario call for?

Options:

A.

Tandem testing

B.

Blind testing

C.

Double-gray testing

D.

Double-blind testing

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Questions 103

Which of the following states of data becomes MOST important to protect as organizations continue to transition toward Application Programming Interface (API)-based solutions?

Options:

A.

Data at rest

B.

Data in use

C.

Data in transit

D.

Data on the client machine

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Questions 104

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) training can be considered complete when the participants

Options:

A.

understand the rationale behind why a specific Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) strategy was chosen.

B.

receive a complete, accurate, and detailed explanation of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

C.

understand their roles and interactions with other roles.

D.

have demonstrated their understanding during an actual disaster.

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Questions 105

Which of the following BEST describes an individual modifying something the individual is not supposed to?

Options:

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Tampering

C.

Spoofing

D.

Repudiation

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Questions 106

When implementing solutions for information security continuous monitoring, which method provides the MOST interoperability between security tools?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD)

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

C.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

D.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

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Questions 107

A security engineer must address resource sharing between various applications without adding physical hardware to the environment. Which secure design principle is used to BEST segregate applications?

Options:

A.

Network firewalls

B.

Logical isolation

C.

Application firewalls

D.

Physical isolation

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Questions 108

Which of the following is the fundamental difference between finite loading and other capacity planning approaches?

Options:

A.

It is highly dependent on advanced computer software to function effectively.

B.

It is only managed by shop floor supervisors.

C.

It can use historical information to drive decision-making processes.

D.

It considers adjustments to plans based on planned capacity utilization.

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Questions 109

Which of the following production activity control (PAC) techniques focuses on optimizing output?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Priority sequencing rules

C.

Theory of constraints (TOC) scheduling

D.

Critical path management (CPM)

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Questions 110

The development team wants new commercial software to integrate into the current system. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

B.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

C.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

D.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

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Questions 111

The demand for an item has increasing forecast error, whereas all other factors remain constant. Which of the following remains constant while maintaining the same customer service level?

Options:

A.

Reorder point(ROP)

B.

Safety stock

C.

Inventory investment

D.

Safety factor

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Questions 112

Following the go-live of a new financial software, an organization allowed the Information Technology (IT) officer to maintain all rights and access permissions to help the organization staff should they have challenges in their day-to-day work. What is the BEST way to categorize the situation?

Options:

A.

Excessive privileges

B.

Need to know access

C.

Training access

D.

Least access principle

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Questions 113

A department manager executes threat modeling at the beginning of a project and throughout its lifecycle. What type of threat modeling is being performed?

Options:

A.

Proactive threat modeling

B.

Reactive threat modeling

C.

Risk assessment

D.

Threat modeling assessment

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Questions 114

Which of the following procedures should be defined when establishing information and asset handling requirements?

Options:

A.

Asset retention procedures

B.

Software patching procedures

C.

Media disposal procedures

D.

User access procedures

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Questions 115

Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer is concerned with Denial-Of-Service (DoS) SYN flood attacks?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Physical

C.

Network

D.

Transport

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Questions 116

What FIRST step should a newly appointed Data Protection Officer (DPO) take to develop an organization's regulatory compliance policy?

Options:

A.

Draft an organizational policy on retention for approval.

B.

Ensure that periodic data governance compliance meetings occur.

C.

Understand applicable laws, regulations, and policies with regard to the data.

D.

Determine the classification of each data type.

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Questions 117

The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:

Options:

A.

represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.

B.

represents the forecast with less detail.

C.

balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

D.

balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.

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Questions 118

An organization wishes to utilize a managed Domain Name System (DNS) provider to reduce the risk of users accessing known malicious sites when web browsing. The organization operates DNS forwarders that forward queries for all external domains to the DNS provider. Which of the following techniques could enable the organization to identify client systems that have attempted to access known malicious domains?

Options:

A.

DNS over Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B.

DNS sinkholing

C.

Deep packet inspection

D.

Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)

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Questions 119

What are the FIRST two steps an organization should conduct to classify its assets?

Options:

A.

Define user requirements and collate existing inventories

B.

Categorize assets and set minimum security controls

C.

Conduct an inventory of assets and determine the owners

D.

Obtain senior management buy-in and conduct a risk assessment

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Questions 120

One way to mitigate liability risk in the supply chain is to:

Options:

A.

negotiate lower component cost.

B.

require traceability for components.

C.

push inventory to supplier locations.

D.

use less-than-truckload (LTL) shipments more frequently.

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Questions 121

Which of the following trade-offs should be evaluated when determining where to place inventory in a multi-echelon supply chain network?

Options:

A.

Production cost and lot size quantity

B.

Purchase cost and shrinkage rates

C.

Transportation cost and delivery time

D.

Customer price and order quantity

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Questions 122

Fishbone diagrams would help a service organization determine:

Options:

A.

the proper level of service for a customer segment.

B.

the source of a quality-of-service issue.

C.

differences in the performance of employees.

D.

the decomposition of customer return rates with seasonality.

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Questions 123

An organization wishes to utilize a managed Domain Name System (DNS) provider to reduce the risk of users accessing known malicious sites when web browsing. The organization operates DNS forwarders that forward queries for all external domains to the DNS provider. Which of the following techniques could enable the organization to identify client systems that have attempted to access known malicious domains?

Options:

A.

DNS over Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B.

DNS sinkholing

C.

Deep packet inspection

D.

Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)

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Questions 124

What BEST describes the end goal of a Disaster Recovery (DR) program?

Options:

A.

Review the status of mission-critical applications.

B.

Prevent business interruption.

C.

Continue business operations during a contingency.

D.

Restore normal business operations.

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Questions 125

Which of the following BEST describes web service security conformance testing as it relates to web services security testing?

Options:

A.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

B.

Focused on ensuring that the security functionally performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

C.

Ensure individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focused on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

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Questions 126

An organization is restructuring its network architecture in which system administrators from the corporate office need to be able to connect to the branch office to perform various system maintenance activities. What network architecture would be MOST secure?

Options:

A.

Jump-server on a Local Area Network (LAN)

B.

Bastion host over a Wide Area Network (WAN)

C.

Jump-server connected to a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

D.

Bastion host with Virtual Private Network (VPN) termination point

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Questions 127

What is the process when a security assessor compiles potential targets from the attacker’s perspective, such as data flows, and interactions with users?

Options:

A.

Threat categorization

B.

Threat avoidance

C.

Threat acceptance

D.

Threat mitigation

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Questions 128

Which of the following roles is the BEST choice for classifying sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Information system owner

B.

Information system security manager

C.

Information owner

D.

Information system security officer

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Questions 129

If the total part failure rate of a machine is 0.00055 failures per hour, what would be the mean time between failures (MTBF) in hours?

Options:

A.

1,818.2

B.

59.99945

C.

1.98

D.

0.99945

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Questions 130

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

Options:

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

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Questions 131

A company is having trouble with raw material deliveries and has decided to develop a supplier certification program. The certification process most appropriately would start with which of the following suppliers?

Options:

A.

Suppliers of "A“ classified items

B.

Suppliers recently ISO 9000 certified

C.

Suppliers with the worst performance records

D.

Suppliers with vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

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Questions 132

For a process that is outside its upper control limit (UCL), which of the following techniques would best be used to return the process under control?

Options:

A.

Conduct a Pareto analysis

B.

Plan-do-check-action (PDCA)

C.

Plot histograms

D.

Monitor control charts

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Questions 133

A security administrator of a large organization is using Mobile Device Management (MDM) technology for protecting mobile devices. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that only company-approved mobile software can be deployed?

Options:

A.

Application blacklisting

B.

Application inventory

C.

Application digital signature

D.

Controlled app store

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Questions 134

What is the FIRST element that must be evaluated in a security governance program?

Options:

A.

An organization’s business objectives and strategy

B.

Review of Information Technology (IT) and technical controls

C.

Review of organization’s Information Technology (IT) security policies

D.

An organization’s utilization of resources

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Questions 135

A reduction In purchased lot sizes will reduce which of the following items?

Options:

A.

Inventory levels

B.

Frequency of orders

C.

Reorder points (ROPs)

D.

Setuptimes

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Questions 136

An information system containing Protected Health Information (PHI) will be accessed by doctors, nurses, and others working in a hospital. The same application will be used by staff in the pharmacy department only for dispensing prescribed medication. Additionally, patients can log in to view medical history. The system owner needs to propose an access control model that considers environment, situation, compliance, and security policies while dynamically granting the required level of access. Which access control model is the MOST suitable?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

B.

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

C.

Task-based access control

D.

Risk-adaptive access control

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Questions 137

The trade-off of increasing safety stock to improve customer fill rate would be a decrease in:

Options:

A.

pipeline inventory.

B.

transportation costs.

C.

inventory turns.

D.

sales revenue.

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Questions 138

An organization wants to control access at a high-traffic entrance using magnetic-stripe cards for identification. Which of the following is the BEST for the organization to utilize?

Options:

A.

A turnstile

B.

A security guard

C.

A mantrap

D.

A locking door

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Questions 139

The time spent In queue by a specific manufacturing job is determined by which of the following factors related to the order?

Options:

A.

Lot size

B.

Priority

C.

Setup time

D.

Run time

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Questions 140

Which of the following security features is utilized to validate both user credentials and the health of the client device on a network?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Network Access Control (NAC)

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Questions 141

Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

Options:

A.

Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.

B.

Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

C.

Work centers operate using decentralized control.

D.

Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.

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Questions 142

A Software As A Service (SaaS) solution was compromised due to multiple missing security controls. The SaaS deployment was rushed and the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) was not followed. Which SDLC phase would have been MOST effective in preventing this failure?

Options:

A.

Design

B.

Requirements

C.

Maintenance

D.

Testing

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Questions 143

The demand for an item has increasing forecast error, whereas all other factors remain constant. Which of the following remains constant while maintaining the same customer service level?

Options:

A.

Reorder point(ROP)

B.

Safety stock

C.

Inventory investment

D.

Safety factor

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Questions 144

As a result of a fault at a cloud service provider’s data center, the customer accounts of a utility organization were corrupted. Under the European Union’s (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which entity bears responsibility for resolving this?

Options:

A.

Data steward

B.

Data processor

C.

Data controller

D.

Data custodian

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Questions 145

After reviewing the output of a threat modelling workshop, the development manager decides not to implement the application features where issues were identified. What is the BEST description of how the threats from the workshop are being addressed?

Options:

A.

Eliminated

B.

Mitigated

C.

Transferred

D.

Accepted

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Questions 146

We have observed the inventory system does not handle plastic parts well." What should be added to the problem statement to make it more useful?

Options:

A.

Measurements that help describe the problem

B.

Guidance to which problem-solving tools should be used

C.

Criteria for selecting the improvement team

D.

Description of who is responsible for the problem

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Questions 147

A team is tasked with developing new email encryption software. To ensure security, what will be the PRIMARY focus during the initial phase of development?

Options:

A.

Ensuring compliance with international data protection and privacy laws for email communication

B.

Implementing strong encryption algorithms to ensure the confidentiality of the emails

C.

Developing a robust user authentication system to prevent unauthorized access to the software

D.

Defining clear software requirements for security and identifying potential threats and risks to the software

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Questions 148

An organization routes traffic between two of its sites using non-revenue network paths provided by peers on an Internet exchange point. What is the MOST appropriate recommendation the organization's security staff can make to prevent a compromise?

Options:

A.

Cease routing traffic over the Internet exchange point and use the transit provider exclusively.

B.

Ask the peers who route the traffic to sign a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA).

C.

Use Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) between the border gateways at either site.

D.

Nothing needs to be done because applications are already required to encrypt and authenticate network traffic.

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Questions 149

Which of the following is typically used to control physical access to highly secure facilities?

Options:

A.

Surveillance

B.

Mantrap

C.

Dual control

D.

Door locks

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Questions 150

An organization is attempting to address the security risk introduced by employees writing down door entry passcodes. Which of the following security measures BEST mitigates this risk?

Options:

A.

Privileged Access Management (PAM) policy

B.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

C.

Video log monitoring

D.

Notification alerts

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Questions 151

A webmaster has repeatedly used the same certificate sign request to renew an organization's website Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate. What is the MOST significant increased risk for the organization?

Options:

A.

Logical access control against symmetric key

B.

Cryptanalysis against symmetric key

C.

Cryptanalysis against private key

D.

Logical access control against private key

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Questions 152

When an organization is recruiting for roles within the organization, at which stage of the employee life cycle are termination procedures incorporated?

Options:

A.

Security training

B.

Orientation

C.

User provisioning

D.

Background check

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Questions 153

Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?

Options:

A.

Retina

B.

Facial recognition

C.

Iris

D.

Hand geometry

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Questions 154

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

Options:

A.

Completeness

B.

Vulnerabilities

C.

Security

D.

Logic

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Questions 155

An organization is considering options to outsource their Information Technology (IT) operations. Although they do not sell anything on the Internet, they have a strong requirement in uptime of their application. After evaluating the offerings received by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP), the IT manager decided it was mandatory to develop processes to continue operations without access to community or public cloud-based applications. Which of the following arguments MOST likely led the IT manager to make this decision?

Options:

A.

Circumstances may force a cloud provider to discontinue operations

B.

Most cloud service offerings are unique to each provider and may not be easily portable

C.

Integrity and confidentiality are not ensured properly on most cloud service offerings

D.

The need to develop alternative hosting strategies for applications deployed to the cloud

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Questions 156

Disaster Recovery (DR) training plan outcomes should have which KEY quality?

Options:

A.

Comprehensible

B.

Identifiable

C.

Measurable

D.

Editable

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Questions 157

Asymmetric cryptography uses which type of key to encrypt data?

Options:

A.

Private key

B.

Permanent key

C.

Parent key

D.

Public key

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Questions 158

A disadvantage of a capacity-lagging strategy may be:

Options:

A.

lack of capacity to fully meet demand.

B.

risk of excess capacity if demand does not reach forecast.

C.

a high cost of inventories.

D.

planned capital investments occur earlier than needed.

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Questions 159

One of the findings in the recent security assessment of a web application reads: "It appears that security is an afterthought in the web application development process. It is recommended that security be addressed earlier in the development process." Which of these choices would BEST remediate this security finding?

Options:

A.

The installation and use of Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) software to test written code.

B.

The installation and use of Static Application Security Testing (SAST) software to test written code.

C.

The introduction of a continuous integration/continuous development pipeline to automate security into the software development change process.

D.

The introduction of a security training program for the developers.

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Questions 160

An organization’s computer incident responses team PRIMARY responds to which type of control?

Options:

A.

Administrative

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

presentative

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Questions 161

Which of the following presents the GREATEST benefit to an organization's security posture when a change management process is implemented?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of Key Risk Indicators (KRI) reported to senior management

B.

Ensure the integrity of the organization's assets

C.

Backups being completed in a timely manner

D.

Accuracy of Key Performance Indicators (KPI) reported to senior management

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Questions 162

Which security concept applies if an architecture diagram illustrates a particular user/role combination with access to an asset or applicaton?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Identification

C.

Authorization

D.

Authentication

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Questions 163

The question below is based on the following information:

Work Center 1 has an available capacity of 1,200 hours per month. Which of the following amounts represents the cumulative difference between the required capacity and the available capacity of Months 1 through 3?

Options:

A.

50

B.

150

C.

1.250

D.

3.750

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Questions 164

During the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process, which of the following tasks is the primary responsibility of the functional representatives on the supply planning team?

Options:

A.

Identifying reasons why the demand plan is not realistic

B.

Communicating when an event will prevent meeting the supply plan

C.

Ensuring that the functional objectives are considered when developing the plans

D.

Understanding how to use the plan to improve functional performance

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Questions 165

An information security professional is tasked with configuring full disk encryption on new hardware equipped with a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). How does TPM further enhance the security posture of full disk encryption if configured properly?

Options:

A.

TPM will use the Operating System (OS) for full disk encryption key protection.

B.

TPM will protect the full disk encryption keys.

C.

TPM will handle the allocation of the hardware storage drives for full disk encryption.

D.

TPM will provide full disk encryption automatically.

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Exam Code: CPIM-8.0
Exam Name: Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0)
Last Update: Oct 31, 2025
Questions: 565
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