CAS-004 Sample Questions Answers

Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs are actions that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal is a technique that uses baselines, analytics, machine learning, or other methods to establish normal patterns of user activity and identify anomalies or outliers that could indicate malicious or suspicious behavior. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments, as it can alert on unusual or unauthorized access attempts, commands, actions, or transactions by users. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs is a technique that uses tools, scripts, automation, or other methods to track and record changes made to code repositories by developers, testers, reviewers, or other parties involved in the software development process. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs can help detect authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, as it can audit and verify the source, time, reason, and impact of code changes made by authorized users. Performing static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect vulnerabilities, errors, bugs, or quality issues in committed code. Implementing an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to protect XML-based web services from threats or attacks by validating XML messages against predefined policies. Monitoring dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to identify outdated or vulnerable third-party libraries used in software development projects. Installing an IDS (intrusion detection system) on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes

OS credential dumping is the process of obtaining account login and password information, normally in the form of a hash or a clear text password, from the operating system and software. System information discovery is the process of gathering information about the system, such as hostname, IP address, OS version, running processes, etc. Both of these techniques are commonly used by adversaries to gain access to sensitive data and resources on the target system. The command shown in the image is using Mimikatz, a tool that can dump credentials from memory, and also querying the system information using WMIC. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1003/

https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1082/

https://github.com/gentilkiwi/mimikatz

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/wmisdk/wmic

The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.

Data exposure is a security concern that will most likely need to be addressed during migration of all company data to the cloud, as it could involve sensitive or confidential data being accessed or disclosed by unauthorized parties. Data exposure could occur due to misconfigured cloud services, insecure data transfers, insider threats, or malicious attacks. Data exposure could also result in compliance violations, reputational damage, or legal liabilities. Latency is not a security concern, but a performance concern that could affect the speed or quality of data access or transmission. Data loss is not a security concern, but a availability concern that could affect the integrity or recovery of data. Data dispersion is not a security concern, but a management concern that could affect the visibility or control of data. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exposure https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such as ОТ (operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing the ОТ environment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise the ОТ environment. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Defenses against BGP hijacks include IP prefix filtering, meaning IP address announcements are sent and accepted only from a small set of well-defined autonomous systems, and monitoring Internet traffic to identify signs of abnormal traffic flows.

The process ID 87 can be the starting point for an investigation of a possible buffer overflow attack, as it shows a high percentage of CPU utilization (99.7%) and a suspicious command name (graphic.linux_randomization.prg). A buffer overflow attack is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in an application or system that allows an attacker to write data beyond the allocated buffer size, potentially overwriting memory segments and executing malicious code. A high CPU utilization could indicate that the process is performing intensive or abnormal operations, such as a buffer overflow attack. A suspicious command name could indicate that the process is trying to disguise itself or evade detection, such as by mimicking a legitimate program or using random characters. The other process IDs do not show signs of a buffer overflow attack, as they have low CPU utilization and normal command names. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-buffer-overflow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A WAF protects your web apps by filtering, monitoring, and blocking any malicious HTTP/S traffic traveling to the web application, and prevents any unauthorized data from leaving the app. It does this by adhering to a set of policies that help determine what traffic is malicious and what traffic is safe.

According to OWASP, LDAP injection is an attack that exploits web applications that construct LDAP statements based on user input without proper validation or sanitization. LDAP injection can result in unauthorized access, data modification, or denial of service. To prevent LDAP injection, OWASP recommends conducting input sanitization by escaping special characters in user input and deploying a web application firewall (WAF) that can detect and block malicious LDAP queries.45

We recommend that you encrypt your virtual hard disks (VHDs) to help protect your boot volume and data volumes at rest in storage, along with your encryption keys and secrets. Azure Disk Encryption helps you encrypt your Windows and Linux IaaS virtual machine disks. Azure Disk Encryption uses the industry-standard BitLocker feature of Windows and the DM-Crypt feature of Linux to provide volume encryption for the OS and the data disks. The solution is integrated with Azure Key Vault to help you control and manage the disk-encryption keys and secrets in your key vault subscription. The solution also ensures that all data on the virtual machine disks are encrypted at rest in Azure Storage. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/iaas

This solution would address the three issues as follows:

Serving static content via distributed CDNs would reduce the latency for international users by delivering images from the nearest edge location to the user’s request.

Creating a read replica of the central database and pulling reports from there would offload the read-intensive workload from the primary database and avoid affecting the inventory data for order placement.

Auto-scaling API servers based on performance would dynamically adjust the number of servers to match the demand and balance the load across them at peak times.

Updating firewall rules to match new IP addresses in use will help to limit the attack surface in case of an incident by ensuring only legitimate traffic is allowed. It can also improve access control for external and internal network security by ensuring that only authorized entities can access certain resources, and may improve network performance by reducing unnecessary traffic (less congestion).

 DLP, or data loss prevention, and CASB, or cloud access security broker, are the solutions that when installed and configured would best meet the CSO’s requirements. DLP is a technology that monitors and prevents unauthorized or accidental data leakage or exfiltration from an organization’s network or devices. DLP can use document attributes, such as metadata, keywords, or fingerprints, to identify and classify sensitive data and enforce policies on how they can be accessed, transferred, or shared. CASB is a technology that acts as a proxy or intermediary between an organization’s cloud services and its users. CASB can provide visibility, compliance, threat protection, and data security for cloud-based applications and data. CASB can also prevent on-site staff from accessing personal SaaS solutions that are not authorized by the organization.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 281-282 and 424-425]

MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help threat hunting teams to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/

https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride-owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/

https://www.ibm.com/topics/threat-management

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Microsegmentation enabled by software-defined networking is an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically. Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on granular criteria, such as applications, services, users, or devices. Microsegmentation can provide fine-grained access control and isolation for network resources, preventing unauthorized or lateral movements within the network. Software-defined networking is a technology that decouples the control plane from the data plane in network devices, allowing centralized and programmable management of network functions and policies. Software-defined networking can enable microsegmentation by dynamically creating and enforcing network segments or zones based on predefined rules or policies. Peer-to-peer secure communications enabled by mobile applications is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as peer-to-peer secure communications is a technique that allows direct and encrypted communication between two or more parties without relying on a central server or intermediary. Proxied application data connections enabled by API gateways is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as proxied application data connections is a technique that allows indirect and filtered communication between applications or services through an intermediary device or service that can modify or monitor the traffic. VLANs (virtual local area networks) enabled by network infrastructure devices is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as VLANs are logical segments of a physical network that can group devices or users based on common criteria, such as function, department, or location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-microsegmentation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Isolating the servers is the best immediate action to take after reporting the incident to the management team, as it can limit the damage and contain the ransomware infection. Paying the ransom is not advisable, as it does not guarantee the recovery of the data and may encourage further attacks. Notifying law enforcement is a possible step, but not the next one after reporting. Requesting that the affected servers be restored immediately may not be feasible or effective, as it depends on the availability and integrity of backups, and it does not address the root cause of the attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ransomware-and-how-to-protect-yourself https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

According to NIST SP 800-146, cloud computing introduces new risks that need to be assessed and managed by the cloud consumer. Some of these risks are related to the shared responsibility model of cloud computing, where some security controls are implemented by the cloud provider and some by the cloud consumer. The cloud consumer cannot transfer all the risks to the cloud provider and needs to understand which risks are retained and which are mitigated by the cloud provider.3

Implementing decoy files on adjacent hosts is a technique that can entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it can lure them into accessing fake or irrelevant data that can trigger an alert or reveal their presence. Decoy files are also known as honeyfiles or honeypots, and they are part of deception technology. Deploying a SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) tool may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as SOAR is mainly focused on automating and streamlining security operations, not deceiving attackers. Modifying user password history and length requirements may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could affect legitimate users and not reveal the attacker’s actions. Applying new isolation and segmentation schemes may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could limit their access and movement, but not expose their presence. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-deception-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

 Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified References:

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/execute-never-bits

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/Execute-Never

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-Architecture–VMSA-/Memory-access-control/Execute-never-restrictions-on-instruction-fetching

Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow

 An information-sharing community is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, and mitigation strategies related to cybersecurity. An information-sharing community can help the company proactively manage the threats of potential theft of its newly developed, proprietary information by providing timely and actionable insights, alerts, and recommendations. An information-sharing community can also enable collaboration and coordination among its members to enhance their collective defense and resilience. References: https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-016 https://www.cisecurity.org/blog/what-is-an-information-sharing-community/

A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its ‘static’ state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

A. An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C. Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D. A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/

https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis

Utilizing HMAC (hash-based message authentication code) for the keys is the best option for securing the REST API connection to the database while preventing the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. HMAC is a technique that uses a secret key and a hash function to generate a code that can verify the authenticity and integrity of a message, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Utilizing HMAC for the keys can prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string, as it can dynamically generate a unique code for each request based on the secret key and the message content, making it difficult to forge or replay. Implementing a VPN (virtual private network) for all APIs is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Signing the key with DSA (Digital Signature Algorithm) is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could be vulnerable to attacks or forgery if the key is compromised or weak, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Deploying MFA (multi-factor authentication) for the service accounts is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could affect the usability or functionality of API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-hmac https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Assuring the integrity of messages is the most important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages that tell an ICS (industrial control system) how much electrical power to output. Integrity is the security objective that ensures the accuracy and completeness of data or information, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Assuring the integrity of messages can prevent malicious or accidental changes to the control messages that could affect the operation or safety of the ICS or the electrical power output. Importing the availability of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the accessibility and usability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or disruption of service. Ensuring non-repudiation of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or dispute of actions or transactions. Enforcing protocol conformance for messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the compliance and consistency of data or information, preventing unauthorized deviations or violations of rules or standards. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-integrity https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario

A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified References: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn

Geofencing is a location-based service that allows an organization to define and enforce a virtual boundary around a sensitive area, such as a data center. Geofencing can use various technologies, such as GPS, Wi-Fi, cellular data, or RFID, to detect when a mobile device enters or exits the geofence. Geofencing can also trigger certain actions or notifications based on the device’s location. For example, the organization can set up a geofencing policy that sends an alert to the CISO and the device user when a mobile device enters the data center area. Geofencing can also be used to restrict access to certain apps or features based on the device’s location. Verified References:

https://developer.android.com/training/location/geofencing

https://www.manageengine.com/mobile-device-management/mdm-geofencing.html

https://www.koombea.com/blog/mobile-geofencing/

Soft delete allows blobs to be deleted, but the data remains accessible for a period of time before it is permanently deleted. This allows the company to delete blobs as needed, while still affording enough time for the backup process to complete. After the backup process is complete, the blobs can be permanently deleted.

User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to monitor and detect unusual or malicious activity by privileged users who failed the phishing exercise. UEBA uses machine learning and behavioral analytics to establish a baseline of normal activity and identify anomalies that indicate potential threats. UEBA can help detect compromised credentials, insider threats, and advanced persistent threats that may evade traditional security solutions. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario. 

An EDR and whitelist should protect from this attack.

Steganography is a technique that can hide data within other files or media, such as images, audio, or video. This can provide a low-cost approach to theft detection for the audio recordings produced and sold by the small business, as it can embed identifying information or watermarks in the audio files that can reveal their origin or ownership. Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files may not be feasible or effective for theft detection, as it could consume a lot of bandwidth and resources, and it may not detect hidden data within encrypted packets. Adding identifying filesystem metadata to the digital audio files may not provide enough protection for theft detection, as filesystem metadata can be easily modified or removed by unauthorized parties. Purchasing and installing a DRM (digital rights management) suite may not be a low-cost approach for theft detection, as it could involve licensing fees and hardware requirements. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A single-tenancy SaaS solution is the best solution for this company. SaaS stands for software as a service, which is a cloud-based model that allows customers to access applications hosted by a provider over the internet. A single-tenancy SaaS solution means that the company has its own dedicated instance of the application and its underlying infrastructure, which offers more control, customization, and security than a multi-tenancy SaaS solution where multiple customers share the same resources. A single-tenancy SaaS solution also eliminates the need for managing a private cloud or an on-premises infrastructure. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/saas

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) solutions are designed to automate and streamline security operations in complex environments. By utilizing APIs, SOAR platforms can integrate with various security tools to enhance incident response processes, automate tasks, and improve overall efficiency. This aligns with the requirements of using the latest technology and having high control over the solution. SOAR's ability to orchestrate between different security solutions and automate responses to threats makes it the best option to reduce the security task workload while maintaining high controls.

The dbadmin user is consulting the community for help via Internet Relay Chat. The clues in the given information point to the dbadmin user having established an Internet Relay Chat (IRC) connection to an external address at 7:55 a.m. This connection is still active, and only a few kilobytes of data have been transferred since the start of the connection. The sample outbound request payload of "JOIN #community" also suggests that the user is trying to join an IRC chatroom. This suggests that the dbadmin user is using the IRC connection to consult the community for help with a problem. Therefore, the root cause of the anomalous activity is likely the dbadmin user consulting the community for help via IRC. References: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 10, Investigating Intrusions and Suspicious Activity.

In this case, the security engineer is assessing a web application that uses SAML, and dynamic analysis (also known as DAST – Dynamic Application Security Testing) is the most appropriate method to identify potential authentication issues. Dynamic analysis tests the application in a runtime environment, allowing the engineer to identify vulnerabilities that arise during actual application execution, such as SAML misconfigurations or other authentication weaknesses. This is more effective for finding authentication issues compared to static analysis, which only reviews code without execution. CASP+ highlights the importance of dynamic testing in identifying real-world vulnerabilities, especially in web applications.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Dynamic Testing for Web Applications)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Authentication Testing in Web Applications with Dynamic Analysis

A hybrid IaaS solution in a single-tenancy cloud is the best option for the company to meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standards for virtualization and cloud computing. A hybrid IaaS solution allows the company to use both on-premises and cloud-based resources to scale up its capacity and performance. A single-tenancy cloud ensures that the company’s data and applications are isolated from other customers and have dedicated resources and security controls. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/special-topics/cloud-computing/index.html

Even though the company uses a cloud service provider (CSP) that is PCI compliant, the customer must still ensure that in-scope systems related to their new payment system offering are also PCI compliant. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) applies to any system that processes, stores, or transmits credit card data, and this includes customer-owned systems, services, or applications integrated into the solution. The responsibility is shared between the CSP and the customer, and compliance is not automatically inherited just because the CSP is compliant. CASP+ emphasizes that organizations must ensure all components within their control are also PCI compliant.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (Compliance and PCI DSS)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Cloud Services and PCI Compliance

Geofencing to disable mobile and wearable devices prevents the tracking of staff by disabling GPS and other location-based services. This measure aligns with CASP+ objective 3.2, which includes protecting sensitive facilities against surveillance and unauthorized tracking.

Galois/Counter Mode (GCM) is an AES mode of operation that provides both confidentiality and data integrity. It is well-suited for processing streams of data, making it ideal for streaming video services. GCM is known for its strong cryptographic security and good performance, which aligns with the legacy cipher's characteristics and the streaming service's requirements.

In a shared responsibility model for PaaS, the customer’s responsibility is OS security. PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud service model that provides a platform for customers to develop, run, and manage applications without having to deal with the underlying infrastructure. The cloud provider is responsible for the physical security, network security, and host infrastructure of the platform, while the customer is responsible for the security of the operating system, the application, and the data. The customer needs to ensure that the operating system is patched, configured, and protected from malware and unauthorized access. Verified References:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/shared-responsibility

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/shared-responsibility-model.html

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Step by Step Explanation:

A high volume of DNS queries to unknown domains may indicate domain generation algorithm (DGA) activity associated with malware.

Checking for data exfiltration is the next logical step to determine if sensitive data is being leaked to these domains.

Reconfiguring DNS settings, browsing unknown domains, or blocking the domains are reactive steps that do not address the root cause.

The SAN (Subject Alternative Name) field in a certificate can include multiple types of entries, including DNS names and email addresses. These are explicit options within the SAN extension, allowing a single certificate to be valid for multiple domain names and email addresses. This is often used in multi-domain SSL certificates, where a single certificate needs to be valid for multiple subdomains or different domain names.

To reduce the risk of unauthorized devices accessing company resources, requiring device certificates is an effective control. Device certificates can be used to authenticate devices before they are allowed to connect to the network and access resources, ensuring that only devices with a valid certificate, which are typically managed and issued by the organization, can connect.

Shredding is the most secure way to dispose of the SSDs given the CISO’s concern. Shredding involves physically destroying the SSDs by cutting them into small pieces that make the data unrecoverable. Shredding is the ultimate data destruction method for both HDDs and SSDs, as it ensures that no data remanence is left on the media.

A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a server by overwhelming it with requests or traffic1. One possible indicator of a DoS attack is a large number of connections from a single source IP address1. In this case, the output of netstat -an shows that there are many connections from 213.37.55.67 with different port numbers and in TIME WAIT state23. This suggests that the attacker is sending many SYN packets to initiate connections but not completing them, thus exhausting the server’s resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing it1.

Signed applications ensure the integrity of the application by verifying that the source code has not been tampered with. Digital signatures provide a cryptographic guarantee that the software is exactly as the developer released it.

Visitor logs would be the best additional method for identifying individuals who enter the building in the event of a camera system failure. Visitor logs track who enters and exits a secured facility, providing a record that can be cross-referenced with security events, like the discovery of a suspicious flash drive. In this case, reviewing the visitor logs could help identify the vendor representative who dropped the flash drive. CASP+ highlights the importance of physical security measures, such as logging and auditing access to facilities, to complement digital security controls.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Physical Security and Access Control Logs)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Physical Security and Incident Response Procedures

Fuzz testing identifies vulnerabilities by providing unexpected or random input to the application, exposing edge cases and additional attack vectors. This aligns with CASP+ objective 1.5, emphasizing proactive vulnerability discovery techniques in application security.

Based on the SIEM alerts, the security analyst should first disable the jdoe account, as it is likely compromised by an attacker. The alerts show that the jdoe account successfully logged on to the abc-usa-fsl server, which is a file server, and then initiated SMB (445) traffic to the abc-web01 server, which is a web server. This indicates that the attacker may be trying to exfiltrate data from the file server to the web server. Disabling the jdoe account would help stop this unauthorized activity and prevent further damage.

Disabling Administrator on abc-usa-fsl, the local account is compromised, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if the local account is compromised or not. The alert shows that there was a successful logon event for Administrator on abc-usa-fsl, but it does not specify if it was a local or domain account, or if it was authorized or not. Moreover, disabling the local account would not stop the SMB traffic from jdoe to abc-web01.

Shutting down the abc-usa-fsl server, a plaintext credential is being used, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if a plaintext credential is being used or not. The alert shows that there was RDP (3389) traffic from abc-admin1-logon to abc-usa-fsl, but it does not specify if the credential was encrypted or not. Moreover, shutting down the file server would disrupt its normal operations and affect other users.

Shutting down abc-usa-fw01; the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited or not. The alert shows that there was FTP (21) traffic from abc-usa-dcl to abc-web01, but it does not specify if it was related to the VPN or not. Moreover, shutting down the firewall would expose the network to other threats and affect other services. References: What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is a SIEM Alert? | Cofense

The most significant risk to the development of a machine-learning-based threat detection tool is the Big Data processing required for maturity. Machine learning models often require large datasets to train effectively, and processing and analyzing this data can be time-consuming and resource-intensive. This can delay the development timeline, especially in a rapid CI/CD pipeline environment where timely delivery is crucial. CASP+ highlights the challenges associated with machine learning and Big Data in security tool development, particularly the resource demands and the need for extensive data to ensure accuracy and maturity.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Big Data and Machine Learning Challenges)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Implementing and Managing Machine Learning in Security Environments

Immutable infrastructure through containers ensures that the deployed systems remain consistent and resistant to drift. Any changes require rebuilding and redeploying containers, eliminating configuration inconsistencies. This aligns with CASP+ objective 2.2, which emphasizes implementing scalable, secure system configurations.

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Shutting down and migrating to another platform is the most cost-effective and practical option. This avoids risks associated with the deprecated library. This aligns with CASP+ objective 1.3, which emphasizes practical risk mitigation strategies.

A Content Delivery Network (CDN) is designed to serve content to end-users with high availability and high performance. By implementing a CDN, the company can distribute the content across multiple geographically dispersed servers, thereby reducing latency for users far from the West Coast data centers, including those on the East Coast of the United States and in Europe.

Steganography is the practice of hiding a secret message within another object, in such a way that others cannot discern the presence or contents of the hidden message. It is often used for watermarking to embed a covert sign of ownership in a proprietary document without adding any visible identifying attributes.

The source code in this scenario uses insecure functions like strcpy which are known for not checking buffer sizes, leading to buffer overflow vulnerabilities. The most effective solution is to update the company’s secure coding policy to prohibit the use of insecure functions and replace them with safer alternatives, such as strncpy, which enforces buffer length checks. Integrating this change into the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) ensures that future code adheres to secure practices, thereby reducing the risk of vulnerabilities being introduced into production systems. This approach aligns with CASP+ guidelines that emphasize secure coding practices and policies to prevent common security flaws in software development.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Secure Coding Standards)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Secure Coding and Prevention of Buffer Overflows

In the event of a fire at the main data center, the immediate action should be to review and engage the disaster recovery plan. This is to ensure the continuity of business operations. The CIO should coordinate with IT leaders from both companies to ensure a unified response. Assessing the damage and planning for recovery are crucial, and leveraging the expertise from both companies can help streamline the process.

Digitally signed third-party certificates provide greater security assurance because they are verified by trusted Certificate Authorities (CAs) and offer protection against on-path (man-in-the-middle) interception. Private-key Certificate Signing Request (CSR) signage helps ensure that communication cannot be intercepted or modified by malicious actors. Self-signed certificates, on the other hand, are not trusted outside the local environment and do not provide the same level of protection against on-path attacks. CASP+ emphasizes the security benefits of using third-party-signed certificates for securing communications over public networks.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (PKI, SSL/TLS Certificates)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: The Role of Certificate Authorities in Secure Communication

The Statement of Work is a document that outlines the scope of the penetration test and defines the objectives, tools, methodology, and targets of the test. It also outlines the security controls that will be impacted by the test and what the expected outcomes are. Additionally, the Statement of Work should include any legal requirements and other considerations that should be taken into account during the penetration test.

To meet the contractual requirements of the web service provider, a security engineer should recommend the following actions:

Deploying a content delivery network (CDN): A CDN is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the web service availability12.

Implementing server clusters: A server cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for web services. A server cluster can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by distributing the workload across multiple servers, reducing the risk of single points of failure and performance bottlenecks. A server cluster can also help recover from failures by automatically switching to another server in case of a malfunction34.

Lowering storage input/output (I/O): Storage I/O is the amount of data that can be read from or written to a storage device in a given time. Storage I/O can affect the performance of web services by limiting the speed of data transfer between the servers and the storage devices. Lowering storage I/O can help improve the load time and response time of web services by reducing the latency and congestion of data access. Lowering storage I/O can be achieved by using faster storage devices, such as solid-state drives (SSDs), optimizing the storage layout and configuration, such as using RAID or striping, and caching frequently accessed data in memory5 .

Installing a firewall at corporate headquarters is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help improve the security of web services by preventing unauthorized access and attacks, but it may also introduce additional latency and complexity to the network.

Employing bare-metal loading of applications is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Bare-metal loading is a technique that allows applications to run directly on hardware without an operating system or a hypervisor. Bare-metal loading can help improve the performance and efficiency of applications by eliminating the overhead and interference of other software layers, but it may also increase the difficulty and cost of deployment and maintenance.

Implementing RAID on the backup servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technique that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID can help improve the availability and security of backup data by protecting it from disk failures or corruption, but it may also introduce additional complexity and overhead to the backup process.

Utilizing redundant power for all developer workstations is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Redundant power is a technique that provides multiple sources of power for an IT system in case one fails. Redundant power can help improve the availability and reliability of developer workstations by preventing them from losing power due to outages or surges, but it may also increase the cost and energy consumption of the system.

Ensuring technological diversity on critical servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Technological diversity is a technique that uses different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. Technological diversity can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it may also introduce additional complexity and inconsistency to the environment. References: What Is CDN? How Does CDN Work? | Imperva, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, Server Clustering: What It Is & How It Works | Liquid Web, Storage I/O Performance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, [How to Improve Storage I/O Performance | StarWind Blog], [What Is Firewall Security? | Cisco], [What is Bare Metal? | IBM], [What is RAID? | Dell Technologies US], [What Is Redundant Power Supply? | Dell Technologies US], [Technological Diversity - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a standard for single sign-on (SSO) that provides centralized authentication and authorization, ensuring SaaS access is governed by organizational policies.

SLDAP (Secure LDAP) focuses on directory services but does not centralize SaaS product access.

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) is unrelated to SaaS authentication.

TACACS (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System) is more suited for network devices.

References:

CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 2.3: Implement authentication and authorization technologies.

CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 6, Identity and Access Management.

Traffic mirroring, also known as port mirroring or SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer), involves creating a copy of the actual network traffic for independent analysis. This would allow the third-party vendor to review communications between infrastructure endpoints, identify unauthorized and malicious data patterns, and perform automated, risk-mitigating configuration changes without impacting the live environment. This is used in network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) and for traffic analysis purposes.

Step by Step Explanation:

Creating an organizational risk register ensures the issue is documented and prioritized for mitigation, aligning with risk management best practices.

Accepting the risk is not advisable due to the financial implications of failure.

Implementing network compensating controls does not address server reliability.

Purchasing insurance only offsets financial risk and does not ensure system functionality.

Fuzz testing, or fuzzing, is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as input to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, or failing built-in code assertions or for potential memory leaks. This type of testing can help identify security vulnerabilities that could be exploited by malicious inputs.

The MITRE ATT&CK framework for ICS (Industrial Control Systems) details various tactics and techniques that may be used by adversaries. In the scenario described, the presence of unexpected firmware versions with a checksum that does not match the official vendor firmware indicates that the firmware has been modified. In the MITRE ATT&CK framework for ICS, this falls under the "Persistence" tactic, as it demonstrates an adversary's ability to maintain their foothold within the environment through unauthorized modification of device firmware.

To securely operate the camera, the security analyst should recommend hardening the camera configuration. This involves several steps:

Changing Default Credentials: Default usernames and passwords are a common vulnerability. They should be replaced with strong, unique passwords.

Disabling Unnecessary Services and Ports: The numerous open ports and insecure protocols should be reviewed, and any unnecessary services should be disabled to reduce the attack surface.

Firmware Updates: Ensuring the camera's firmware is up to date will mitigate known vulnerabilities.

Enable Encryption: If possible, enable encryption for both data in transit and at rest to protect the video stream and other communications from interception.

This approach addresses the identified vulnerabilities directly and ensures that the device is more secure. Simply sending logs to the SIEM or isolating the camera might not fully mitigate the risks associated with default settings and open ports.

References:

CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Section 2.4: Implement security activities across the technology life cycle.

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Chapter 5: Implementing Host Security.

A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms.

A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:

Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify the application according to their needs.

Protect the vendor’s intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.

Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.

An after-action report is a document that summarizes the performance of a team during a cybersecurity incident. It is used to review all aspects of the incident response plan, including what was done correctly, what needs improvement, and how the team responded to the incident. The CISO's review of data from a cyber exercise would typically result in an after-action report, which helps in improving future responses to incidents.

ssdeep is a tool that computes and matches Context Triggered Piecewise Hashing (CTPH), also known as fuzzy hashing. It can be used to identify similar files or slight variations of the same file, which may point to the creator of the file if certain patterns or markers are consistently present. This method allows for integrity checking without altering the evidence, which is critical in forensic investigation.

Step by Step Explanation:

Dynamic analysis involves testing the application while it is running to identify vulnerabilities present during execution, providing the most exhaustive runtime vulnerability detection.

Input validation is a specific security control, not a method for exhaustive testing.

Side-channel analysis examines unintended information leakage but does not comprehensively assess runtime vulnerabilities.

Fuzz testing is a specific technique within dynamic analysis but does not ensure exhaustive coverage.

Static analysis examines code without execution, missing runtime-specific vulnerabilities.

The observation that the load balancer has only a single server assigned suggests an issue with scalability. Scalability refers to the ability of the system to handle increasing loads by adding resources. In this case, having a single server assigned to a load balancer may not be adequate to handle increased traffic or load, which could lead to performance issues.

The combination of DAST (Dynamic Application Security Testing) and SAST (Static Application Security Testing) would meet the developers' requirements. DAST is used for runtime testing, capable of simulating attacks like SQL injection and reflected XSS, which fulfills the first requirement. SAST analyzes the code statically to ensure that the application is not vulnerable to issues like memory leaks, fulfilling the second requirement. Implementing both will integrate security testing into the SDLC, addressing the security concerns earlier in the development cycle, as recommended in CASP+.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (DAST, SAST for Secure Software Development)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Secure SDLC and Application Security Testing

Regular operating system patching is critical to mitigating vulnerabilities. When a Snort IDS rule is provided to identify a CVE, it typically means there is a known vulnerability that can be exploited. Keeping systems updated with the latest patches helps to close off these vulnerabilities and protect against exploitation.

Risk acceptance is the decision to accept the potential risk and continue operating without engaging in extraordinary measures to mitigate it. If the cost of anti-malware exceeds the potential loss from a malware threat, it would be more cost-effective to accept the risk rather than spend more on mitigations that don't provide proportional value. This is part of a cost-benefit analysis in risk management.

Software composition analysis (SCA) is the most effective method to mitigate third-party risks in a software supply chain. SCA tools analyze the open-source and third-party components used in software development to identify known vulnerabilities, outdated dependencies, or licensing issues. By integrating SCA into the development environment, the company can proactively address risks related to external libraries or codebases that may introduce vulnerabilities into the software supply chain. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of securing the supply chain, particularly by identifying and addressing risks introduced by third-party software components.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (Third-Party Risk Management)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Securing Software Supply Chains with SCA

If the asymmetric private key defined in the write-once read-many (WORM) portion of the System on Chip (SoC) is compromised, the IoT device manufacturer cannot simply replace or update the key through software changes due to the nature of WORM memory. The compromised key would necessitate the production of a new IoT device with a redesigned SoC that includes a new, secure private key. This is because the integrity of the encryption module is fundamental to the device's security, and a compromised key cannot be allowed to persist in the hardware.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:

PBKDF2 (Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2) strengthens passwords against brute-force attacks.

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) supports variable block and key sizes, making it ideal for secure encryption.

RC5, P256, and ECDSA are not relevant to password vault requirements.

RIPEMD is a hashing algorithm and does not meet the criteria for encryption or brute-force resistance.

References:

CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 2.1: Implement cryptographic technologies.

CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 9, Cryptographic Tools.

Rescanning ensures all identified vulnerabilities have been resolved and no additional changes introduced new issues. This step is critical for verifying remediation effectiveness before moving systems back into production, aligning with CASP+ objective 5.1, which involves verifying security measures during testing and evaluation phases.

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Watermarking is a technique of adding an identifying image or pattern to an original image to protect its ownership and authenticity. Watermarks can be customized to include specific information about the external party, such as their name, logo, or date of receipt. This way, if any draft images are leaked to the public, the firm can trace back the source of the leak and take appropriate actions. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Watermark

https://www.canva.com/features/watermark-photos/

https://www.mdpi.com/2078-2489/11/2/110

Static application security testing (SAST) is a method of analyzing the source code of an application for vulnerabilities and weaknesses before it is deployed. SAST can help identify security issues earlier in the development process, reducing the time and cost of remediation. Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is a method of testing the functionality and behavior of an application at runtime for vulnerabilities and weaknesses. DAST can cover public-facing application components, but it cannot detect issues in the source code or in serverless applications. Runtime application self-protection (RASP) is a technology that monitors and protects an application from attacks in real time by embedding security features into the application code or runtime environment. RASP can help prevent exploitation of vulnerabilities, but it cannot identify or fix them. A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can help protect an application from common attacks, but it cannot detect or fix vulnerabilities in the application code or in serverless applications. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3: Enterprise Security Operations, Objective 3.4: Conduct security assessments using appropriate tools

Due care refers to the effort made by an ordinarily prudent or reasonable party to avoid harm to another party. By not reporting the gaps in the inventory system, the assessor is neglecting their responsibility and not exercising the due care that is expected of them, which could lead to legal ramifications for non-compliance or other security breaches.

Establishing one-way trust from Company B to Company A would allow users from Company B to access Company A’s resources using their existing credentials. Implementing attribute-based access control would allow users to have different sets of rights and privileges based on their attributes, such as department and IP address. Verified References:

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/access-management/what-is-sso/

https://frontegg.com/blog/a-complete-guide-to-implementing-single-sign-on

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/host-integration-server/esso/enterprise-single-sign-on-basics

A TPM (trusted platform module) is a hardware device that can provide boot loader protection by storing cryptographic keys and verifying the integrity of the boot process. An HSM (hardware security module) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for booting. A PKI (public key infrastructure) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication, but not boot loader protection. UEFI/BIOS are firmware interfaces that control the boot process, but they do not provide protection by themselves. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-tpm-trusted-platform-module https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

AES-GCM (Advanced Encryption Standard - Galois/Counter Mode) is a symmetric encryption standard that provides both confidentiality and integrity, making it ideal for encrypting sensitive information like PHI at rest in a cloud environment.

Triple DES is outdated and less secure compared to modern standards like AES.

RSA is an asymmetric encryption standard better suited for encrypting small data (e.g., keys) rather than bulk data like a filesystem.

TLS is a protocol for securing data in transit, not at rest.

RIPEMD is a cryptographic hash function and does not provide encryption, which is required to ensure confidentiality.

References:

CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 2.1: Implement cryptographic solutions to protect sensitive data.

CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 9, Encryption Standards.

Defining ACLs in a CSP relies on software-defined networking. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing for centralized and programmable network management. SDN can enable dynamic and flexible network configuration and optimization, as well as improved security and performance. In a CSP, SDN can be used to define ACLs that can apply to virtual networks, subnets, or interfaces, regardless of the physical infrastructure. SDN can also allow for granular and consistent ACL enforcement across different cloud services and regions. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsdn/definition/software-defined-networking-SDN

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/guide/networking/network-security

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definition/cloud-networking

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

The root cause of this issue is that the iOS keychain imported only the client public and private keys, but not the CA certificate. A PKCS#12 file (.p12 or .pfx) is a file format that contains a certificate and its private key, optionally protected by a password. A PKCS#12 file can also contain intermediate certificates or root certificates that are needed to verify the certificate chain. However, when importing a PKCS#12 file into the iOS keychain, only the certificate and its private key are imported, not the CA certificate. This means that the iOS device cannot verify the authenticity of the certificate, and displays the error message “mbedTLS: ca certificate undefined”. To fix this issue, the CA certificate needs to be imported separately into the iOS keychain, either manually or using a configuration profile. Verified References:

https://developer.apple.com/documentation/devicemanagement/certificatepkcs12

https://support.apple.com/guide/deployment/distribute-certificates-depcdc9a6a3f/web

https://openvpn.net/faq/how-do-i-use-a-client-certificate-and-private-key-from-the-ios-keychain/

The organization is implementing homomorphic encryption. Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This means that the organization can analyze the customers’ data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data, preserving the privacy and confidentiality of the customers. Homomorphic encryption can enable various applications, such as cloud computing, machine learning, and data analytics, that require processing sensitive data without compromising security. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/homomorphic-encryption

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-at-rest

https://www.ibm.com/topics/homomorphic-encryption

DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) and SPF (Sender Policy Framework) are two mechanisms that can help detect and prevent email spoofing, which is the creation of email messages with a forged sender address. DMARC allows a domain owner to publish a policy that specifies how receivers should handle messages that fail authentication tests, such as SPF or DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). SPF allows a domain owner to specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of their domain. By checking the DMARC and SPF records of the sender’s domain, a receiver can verify if the email is from a legitimate source or not. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Email_spoofing

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DMARC

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sender_Policy_Framework

A content delivery network (CDN) is a geographically distributed network of servers that can cache content close to end users, allowing for faster and more efficient delivery of web content, such as images, videos, and streaming media. A CDN can also handle an increase in customer demand of resources, provide high-quality streaming media, and create a user-friendly interface by reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also improve the security and availability of the website by mitigating DDoS attacks and providing redundancy. Verified References:

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cdn/what-is-a-cdn/

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cdn/cdn-overview

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Content_delivery_network

The process that involves searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit is e-discovery. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can be used for civil litigation, criminal prosecution, regulatory compliance, internal investigations, and other purposes. E-discovery can help parties obtain evidence from various sources, such as emails, documents, databases, social media, cloud services, mobile devices, and others. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery

https://www.edrm.net/frameworks-and-standards/edrm-model/

https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/electronic_discovery_(federal)

The company should use an additional layer of encryption to secure the data from theft when moving to a CSP. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption can protect the data from unauthorized access or modification during transit and at rest. Encryption can be applied at different levels, such as disk, file, or application. An additional layer of encryption can provide an extra security measure on top of the encryption provided by the CSP. Verified References:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/transition-seat-based-services

https://cloud.google.com/architecture/patterns-for-connecting-other-csps-with-gcp

Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:

netstat -ano | findstr :40322

This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat

https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/

OCSP stapling is a solution that allows the web server to provide a time-stamped OCSP response signed by the CA along with the certificate during the TLS handshake, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately to validate the certificate. OCSP stapling can reduce the delay caused by the certificate validation process by saving a round-trip between the client and the CA. It can also improve the security and privacy of the certificate validation by preventing potential attacks or tracking by malicious third parties. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OCSP_stapling

https://www.digicert.com/knowledgebase/ssl-certificates/ssl-general-topics/what-is-ocsp-stapling.html

https://www.entrust.com/knowledgebase/ssl/online-certificate-status-protocol-ocsp-stapling

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID “CorpWiFi”, which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 420]

Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.

A. Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.

C. Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.

F. Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.

B. VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

D. PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

E. Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

G. Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

H. IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

Public keys on both endpoints are required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates are issued by trusted authorities called Certificate Authorities (CAs), and can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders. Mutual authentication is a process in which two parties authenticate each other at the same time using certificates. Mutual authentication can provide stronger security and privacy than one-way authentication, where only one party is authenticated. In PKI-based mutual authentication, each party has a certificate that contains its public key and identity information, and a private key that corresponds to its public key. The private key is kept secret and never shared with anyone, while the public key is shared and used to verify the identity and signature of the certificate holder. The basic steps of PKI-based mutual authentication are as follows:

Party A sends its certificate to Party B.

Party B verifies Party A’s certificate by checking its validity, signature, and trust chain. If the certificate is valid and trusted, Party B extracts Party A’s public key from the certificate.

Party B generates a random challenge (such as a nonce or a timestamp) and encrypts it with Party A’s public key. Party B sends the encrypted challenge to Party A.

Party A decrypts the challenge with its private key and sends it back to Party B.

Party B compares the received challenge with the original one. If they match, Party B confirms that Party A is the legitimate owner of the certificate and has possession of the private key.

The same steps are repeated in reverse, with Party A verifying Party B’s certificate and sending a challenge encrypted with Party B’s public key.

A. Perfect forward secrecy on both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is a property of encryption protocols that ensures that the compromise of a long-term secret key (such as a private key) does not affect the security of past or future session keys (such as symmetric keys). PFS can enhance the security and privacy of encrypted communications, but it does not provide authentication by itself.

B. Shared secret for both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Shared secret is a method of authentication that relies on a pre-shared piece of information (such as a password or a passphrase) that is known only to both parties. Shared secret can provide simple and fast authentication, but it does not provide non-repudiation or identity verification.

D. A common public key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common public key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and private key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

E. A common private key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common private key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and public key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

Rules of engagement are legal documents that should be signed by all parties involved in an assessment to ensure they understand their roles and responsibilities. Rules of engagement define the scope, objectives, methods, deliverables, limitations, and expectations of an assessment project. They also specify the legal and ethical boundaries, communication channels, escalation procedures, and reporting formats for the assessment. Rules of engagement help to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, or liabilities during or after an assessment.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 34]

WPA3-Personal is a simple, secure solution for a small business with a single access point. It uses a new security protocol called Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) exchange with a more secure way to do initial key exchange. SAE also provides forward secrecy, which means that even if the password is compromised, the attacker cannot decrypt past or future data. WPA3-Personal also uses AES-128 in CCM mode as the minimum encryption algorithm, which is resistant to offline password attacks. WPA3-Personal requires low administrative overhead and supports a single SSID with no guest access. Verified References:

https://www.diffen.com/difference/WPA2_vs_WPA3

https://www.thewindowsclub.com/wpa3-personal-enterprise-wi-fi-encryption

https://www.teldat.com/blog/wpa3-wi-fi-network-security-wpa3-personal-wpa3-enterprise/

SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a technology that allows organizations to use multiple, low-cost Internet connections to create a secure and dynamic WAN. SD-WAN can provide benefits such as lower costs, higher performance, and easier management compared to traditional WAN technologies, such as MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching).

However, SD-WAN also introduces some potential risks, such as:

The reliability and security of the Internet connections, which may vary depending on the location, provider, and traffic conditions.

The compatibility and interoperability of the SD-WAN hardware and software, which may come from different vendors or use different standards.

The availability and quality of the SD-WAN provider’s support, which may depend on the provider’s size, reputation, and outsourcing practices.

In this case, the CISO would most likely identify the risk that the SD-WAN provider uses a third party for support, because this could:

Affect the organization’s ability to resolve issues or request changes in a timely and effective manner.

Expose the organization’s network data and configuration to unauthorized or malicious parties.

Increase the complexity and uncertainty of the SD-WAN service level agreement (SLA) and contract terms.

The EDR output shows the process tree of the ransomware infection. The root node is NO-AV.exe, which is a malicious executable that disables antivirus software and downloads the DearCry ransomware. The NO-AV.exe process was launched on cpt-ws026 by a user named John. The DearCry.exe process was then launched on cpt-ws026 by NO-AV.exe and propagated to other devices via SMB. Therefore, the ransomware originated from cpt-ws026 and NO-AV.exe. Verified References:

https://www.microsoft.com/security/blog/2021/03/12/analyzing-dearcry-ransomware-the-first-attack-to-exploit-exchange-server-vulnerabilities/

https://www.crowdstrike.com/blog/dearcry-ransomware-analysis/

Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers or instances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 406-407 and 410]

Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.

Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:

Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.

Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.

Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.

Key escrow is the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Key escrow is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow by a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, or for complying with legal or regulatory requirements that may demand access to encrypted data.

B. TPM is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a computer. TPM does not involve any third party or escrow service.

C. Trust models are not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Trust models are frameworks that define how entities can establish and maintain trust relationships in a network or system. Trust models do not necessarily involve any third party or escrow service.

D. Code signing is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Code signing is a process of using digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of software code. Code signing does not involve any third party or escrow service.

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 301]

The company should implement an EV certificate and HSTS on its new website. An EV certificate provides the highest level of web identity validation by requiring extensive verification of the organization’s identity and domain ownership. HSTS enforces encryption of all web transactions by redirecting HTTP requests to HTTPS and preventing users from accepting invalid certificates. These solutions would enhance the security and trustworthiness of the website without increasing complexity or expenditure significantly. Verified References:

https://www.entrust.com/digital-security/certificate-solutions/products/digital-certificates/tls-ssl-certificates

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/access-tokens

Threat emulation is the method that should be used to test an incident response playbook for insider attacks. Threat emulation is a technique that simulates real-world attacks using realistic scenarios, tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of threat actors. Threat emulation can help evaluate the effectiveness of an incident response plan by testing how well it can detect, respond to, contain, eradicate, recover from, and learn from an attack.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 461]

OPC (Open Platform Communications) and Modbus are two common protocols used for industrial control systems (ICS). OPC is a standard that allows different devices and applications to exchange data in a vendor-neutral way. Modbus is a serial communication protocol that enables devices to send and receive commands and data over a network. Modbus has two variants: Modbus TCP/IP, which uses TCP port 502 for communication, and Modbus RTU/ASCII, which uses serial ports.

To allow an OPC server to communicate with a Modbus server that is controlling electrical relays, the security engineer should recommend restricting inbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 502. This configuration would:

Permit the OPC server to send commands and data to the Modbus server using Modbus TCP/IP protocol over port 502.

Limit operational disruptions, by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the Modbus server from other sources.

Due to the limitations within the Modbus protocol, such as lack of encryption and authentication, restricting inbound traffic is a necessary security measure to protect the integrity and availability of the ICS.

The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user’s IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user’s traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device’s location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user’s privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address

VPN Concentrator:

AAA Server:

The security analyst acknowledges this alert because it is a false positive. A false positive is an event classification that indicates a benign or normal activity is mistakenly flagged as malicious or suspicious by the SIEM system. A false positive can occur due to misconfigured rules, outdated signatures, or faulty algorithms. A false positive can waste the security analyst’s time and resources, so it is important to acknowledge and dismiss it after verifying that it is not a real threat. Verified References:

https://www.ibm.com/topics/siem

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-siem

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/data-insider/what-is-siem.html

The three metric groups that are needed to calculate CVSS scores are Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics represent the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Temporal metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that may change over time but not across user environments. The Environmental metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that are relevant and unique to a particular user’s environment. Verified References:

https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

https://www.first.org/cvss/specification-document

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, or denial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.

Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.

Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.

Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

A wildcard certificate is a certificate that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, such as *.example.com. This would allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate deployments, as one wildcard certificate can cover all the subdomains that will be separated out with subdomains. Including all available cipher suites may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as cipher suites are used for negotiating encryption and authentication algorithms, not for verifying certificates. Using a third-party CA (certificate authority) may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as a third-party CA is an entity that issues and validates certificates, not a type of certificate. Implementing certificate pinning may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as certificate pinning is a technique that hardcodes the expected certificate or public key in the application code, not a type of certificate. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-wildcard-certificate https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide