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CAMS Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

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Questions 5

Which of the following serves as an example of a successful public-private partnership (PPP)?

Options:

A.

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

B.

The AUSTRAC Fintel Alliance

C.

The Egmont Group

D.

The Wolfsberg Group

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Questions 6

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

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Questions 7

A multinational corporation is considering expanding into a new market with a history of political instability and corruption.

Which strategy would be most effective in mitigating reputational risk from a financial crime perspective associated with such an expansion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the jurisdiction risks and other relevant factors have been taken into consideration in the EWRA and the residual risks are within the corporation's risk appetite

B.

Partnering with established local businesses to leverage their knowledge and connections while sharing risks

C.

Ensuring the company has strong ties with local government officials to influence policy and avoid negative scrutiny

D.

Committing to open communication, ethical practices, and community engagement to build trust with stakeholders

E.

Minimizing the company's direct presence in the country to reduce exposure to potential risks

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Questions 8

Which should be provided to the board of directors or designated specialized committee when preparing suspicious activity reports (SARs)?

Options:

A.

Statistical data regarding SARs filed during the reported period

B.

All possible details of SARs filed during the reported period

C.

Copies of all SARs filed during the reported period

D.

Names of all customers subject to SARs filed during the reported period

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Questions 9

Section 319(a) of the USA PATRIOT Act:

Options:

A.

Allows the appropriate federal banking agency to require a financial organization to produce, within 120 hours, records or information related to the organization's AML compliance or related to a customer of the organization or any account opened, maintained, administered, or managed in the U.S. by the financial organization.

B.

Provides the U.S. Department of Treasury with the authority to apply graduated, proportionate measures against a foreign jurisdiction, foreign financial organization, type of international transaction, or type of account.

C.

Permits the U.S. Government to seize funds from a correspondent bank account in the U.S. that has been opened and maintained for a foreign bank in the same amount as has been deposited with the foreign bank.

D.

Requires due diligence, and in certain situations enhanced due diligence (EDD), for foreign correspondent accounts, which includes virtually all account relationships that organizations can have with a foreign financial organization and private banking for non-citizens of the U.S.

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Questions 10

Which of the following measures is one that the FATF recommends that Financial Institutions and Designated Non-Financial Businesses and Professions (DNFPB) take to mitigate risks arising from business relationships with foreign politically exposed persons (PEPs)?

Options:

A.

Raise transaction monitoring thresholds for PEP accounts in automated systems to account for higher transaction values and complex legal vehicles and financial structures

B.

Require approval from the prudential regulator for entering into or continuing the business relationship

C.

Subscribe to commercial databases to assist in the detection of PEPs

D.

Establish processes to understand the PEP's source of wealth and the source of funds, and to refresh that understanding on a regular basis

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Questions 11

Which of the following statements is true regarding Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Sanctions can only be placed on certain individuals in foreign countries as designated by OFAC

B.

Blocked funds must be placed into an interest-bearing account on a financial institution's books

C.

Sanctions can be either comprehensive or selective using the blocking of assets and trade restrictions to accomplish foreign policy and national security goals

D.

OFAC sanctions automatically expire after five years unless renewed by Congress

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Questions 12

As emphasized in the Basel Committee guidance for "Sound management of risks related to money laundering and financing of terrorism", the third line of defense, or audit function, should:

Options:

A.

Conduct AML audits no less often than every 12 months for consistency in annual reporting.

B.

Remain independent from expressing opinions on the sufficiency of remediation or action plans to address findings and recommendations.

C.

Be involved in the day-to-day operations of the AML program to immediately prevent control failures.

D.

Report to the audit committee of the board of directors to maintain independence.

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Questions 13

An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.

Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?

Options:

A.

Consistency of approach

B.

Periodic training of the function

C.

Qualification of the team

D.

Independent testing

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Questions 14

Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?

Options:

A.

Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 of the European Parliament

B.

Collaborative Sharing of Money Laundering/Terrorism Financing (ML/TF) Information & Cases (COSMIC)

C.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(a)

D.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(b)

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Questions 15

Which of the following are important AML controls for a compliance manager of a regulated asset management company in the European Union to implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inviting prospective customers for an onboarding interview

B.

Rejecting any politically exposed persons (PEPs) as customers

C.

Understanding the source and origin of assets

D.

Performing negative news checks of prospective customers

E.

Producing financial stability reports on interesting customers

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Questions 16

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

Options:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

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Questions 17

The primary objectives of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

evaluate and monitor compliance with the FATF standards and provide recommendations for improvement.

B.

assist countries in implementing EU, UN, and regional sanctions regimes.

C.

develop and promote international standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing.

D.

conduct investigations on countries legislations and laws to prevent them from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

ensure that countries follow its laws to maintain financial stability.

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Questions 18

Which of the following are potential financial crime-related red flags when obtaining client data? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A client frequently submits financial statements much earlier than required appearing overly eager

B.

A client insists on using a personal bank account for business transactions despite being advised otherwise

C.

A new client shows a preference for minimal direct interaction and relies primarily on indirect communication methods, citing convenience or time constraints

D.

The client is a publicly listed company but very diversified

E.

The ultimate beneficial ownership is unclear

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Questions 19

What are the rules imposed by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) for legal entities and persons related to the US? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The head office of a foreign legal entity which has a branch in the US does not need to comply with OFAC rules.

B.

A foreign individual visiting the US for a short vacation is obligated to follow OFAC rules.

C.

Nationals of the US must comply with OFAC rules, regardless of where they are located in the world.

D.

Any foreign corporation is also penalized if it conducts transactions with sanctioned countries under OFAC rules.

E.

A subsidiary of a legal entity of the US, which is formally registered in a foreign country, is exempt from OFAC rules.

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Questions 20

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

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Questions 21

An international bank is headquartered in Madrid, Spain with an office in New York City (NYC), US. The Madrid office is investigating a transaction originating from a customer of the NYC office and inquires whether the NYC office can share any relevant further information on the individual. Upon further research, the NYC office finds that they have filed a suspicious activity report (SAR) on the individual in the previous year.

Which factors need to be considered before sharing the requested information? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The foreign bank must always request approval by its national anti-financial crime authority to share any information cross-border.

B.

The bank should report this to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) and receive formal guidance before sharing the information.

C.

The bank should consider jurisdictional privacy requirements and its own policies and procedures to determine what information to share.

D.

The information should only be shared on a need-to-know basis.

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Questions 22

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

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Questions 23

Which persons must always comply with all Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) regulations? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Permanent US resident aliens regardless of location

B.

Merchants that offer US-origin goods for sale regardless of location

C.

Non-US financial institutions that offer accounts in USD regardless of location

D.

US citizens regardless of location

E.

US incorporated entities and their foreign branches

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Questions 24

What are the primary advantages of using open-source tools in financial crime investigations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Partial automation of data collection and analysis

B.

Cost-effective access to a wide range of data

C.

Real-time monitoring of selected transactions and data sources

D.

Ability to conduct investigations with minimal human oversight

E.

Enhanced ability to identity connections across various data sets

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Questions 25

A national risk assessment (NRA) can impact the risk-based approach (RBA) within an organization's anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program by: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

helping to identify high-risk sectors that require enhanced due diligence (EDO),

B.

eliminating the need for sectoral risk assessments within the organization

C.

guiding the allocation of resources for mitigating financial crime risks

D.

requiring all organizations to apply standardized measures

E.

automatically reducing the organization's responsibility for conducting its own risk assessment

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Questions 26

An AML compliance officer for a large bank has recently received an internal audit report on the private banking unit. The report revealed that the unit staff were not following risk-based due diligence procedures, so that the unit was not operating effectively.

Which immediate actions should the AML compliance officer consider to address these findings? (Select Two.)

Management Should implement a quality assurance program in the private banking unit

Options:

A.

Private bankers should receive training on AML procedures.

B.

All employees should receive refresher AML training.

C.

The board should review and approve a revised AML policy to change customer due diligence requirements in private banking.

D.

The legal department should conduct a review to assess potential legal consequences.

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Questions 27

Which action should a financial institution take when it receives a grand-jury subpoena regarding a customer?

Options:

A.

Make copies of the customer's documents and submit the originals to the enforcement agency

B.

Notify the customer being investigated before submitting documents

C.

Keep the customer's accounts open at the enforcement agency's verbal request

D.

Have the institution's assigned legal counsel review the subpoena

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Questions 28

Which red flags apply to trade-based money laundering (TBML) schemes? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Use of wire transfers

B.

Loitering

C.

Instructions or involvement from third parties

D.

Amended letters of credit without reasonable justification

E.

Non-standard settlement arrangements

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Questions 29

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele’s high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

B.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

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Questions 30

According to the Basel Committee principles, which actions would make a customer identification program at a bank more robust? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Understanding why a customer has selected a particular financial institution for banking

B.

Verifying the identity of a customer with reputable online source documentation

C.

Limiting the online activities of a new customer during the first two months

D.

Understanding the nature and purpose behind a new business opening an account at the bank

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Questions 31

The relationship manager in the corporate banking department at a bank is required to take specialized AML training tailored to the risks the department is most likely to encounter.

Which types of content are most appropriate for this training? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Money laundering typologies applicable to monetary instrument reporting

B.

Applicable AML laws and regulations

C.

Regulatory exam best practices

D.

Money laundering typologies applicable to corporate loans

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Questions 32

It Is important for financial institutions (FIs) to be aware of anti-financial crime (AFC) and sanctions regulatory regimes in other jurisdictions in order to.

Options:

A.

maintain compliance with the AFC and sanctions requirements of all countries where the F1 operates or has business relationships and to avoid penalties for violations in foreign jurisdictions.

B.

ensure that sanctions regimes are applied selectively based on the regulatory standards of the countries where business activities occur, focusing primarily on aligned jurisdictions

C.

compensate for the limited applicability of AFC and sanctions regulations on cross-border transactions and their reduced relevance for domestic operations in other jurisdictions.

D.

ensure the F1 can manage business relationships in jurisdictions with stricter or more lenient regulations than their home country, allowing for operational flexibility

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Questions 33

When assessing and managing money laundering risks while operating in foreign jurisdictions different from that of the head office, an effective AML monitoring program should:

Options:

A.

Be consistent with the head office audits

B.

Be tailored to the higher of standards between the jurisdictions.

C.

Conform to the foreign jurisdiction policies to align with the head office policies.

D.

Provide all foreign jurisdiction reports to the head office for approval.

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Questions 34

Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The family members and close associates of PEPs may be involved in illicit activities.

B.

PEPs are granted unlimited credit and financial immunity under international banking regulations.

C.

PEPs may exploit embassy activities to conceal bribery and corruption transactions.

D.

PEPs can have illegitimate fund sources but are legally protected from having their accounts closed for activities outside a bank's risk appetite.

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Questions 35

Which principles of the Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) are aimed at maximizing cooperation between FIUs to more effectively combat money laundering? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating spontaneous information sharing between FIUs to reduce the burden of excess investigative work

B.

FIU cooperation should always be channeled through designated intermediaries

C.

Information exchange should take place informally, without too many formal prerequisites

D.

Formal Egmont Group membership requirements ensure a high commitment of the eligible FIUs

E.

It is within an FIU's authority to sign Memorandums of Understanding independently

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Questions 36

In which of the following cases can a financial institution disclose a suspicious activity report (SAR)?

Options:

A.

A court order requests the bank to disclose the SAR subject to obtaining agreement from the legal team

B.

A customer asks about potential reporting to the local Financial Intelligence Unit (Fill)

C.

An external consultant inquires about the details of the SAR

D.

A third-country police directly inquires about the customer.

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Questions 37

Based on the AML principles outlined by the Wolfsberg Group, what do private and correspondent banks have in common when monitoring for terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

Cash access from a pre-paid card increases the potential that the card will be used for money laundering purposes.

B.

Transaction monitoring examines the relationship between due diligence information and account closings.

C.

Account and transactional activity are monitored after the proper identification and verification of customers.

D.

Numbered or alternate name accounts will only be accepted if the bank has established the identity of the client and beneficial owner.

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Questions 38

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

Options:

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

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Questions 39

Criminals may misuse financial statements prepared by accountants to hide illicit assets.

Which of the following scenarios poses the greatest risk of financial statement manipulation by criminals?

Options:

A.

A lack of professional body oversight or required use of accounting and auditing standards in the country of incorporation of the entity

B.

Criminals posing as individuals seeking financial advice to place assets out of reach to avoid future liabilities

C.

Incomplete records being provided during bookkeeping, making them difficult to audit

D.

Accountants being used as intermediaries to introduce criminals to financial institutions

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Questions 40

A compliance manager at a virtual asset service provider (VASP) is evaluating its business and its impact on AML policies. Which of the following features of the VASP's business would be of greatest concern? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Allowing clients lo transact anonymity-enhanced tokens

B.

Onboardlng of clients who are residents abroad. Including those with politically exposed person (PEP) status

C.

Enabling transfer of tokens from one blockchain to another

D.

Offering services to VASPs established in jurisdictions that are not FATF compliant

E.

Operating a network of crypto ATMs charging high fees

F.

Lack of adequate IP address tracking capabilities

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Questions 41

In which of the following situations would it be most crucial for the designated AML compliance officer of a company to perform a complete review of the company's AML program, including identifying the risks and commensurate controls?

Options:

A.

An external audit highlights several deficiencies

B.

The company is merging with or acquiring another entity

C.

Extensive AML legislation is proposed by a legislative body in the company's jurisdiction

D.

A high-profile money laundering case involving another industry is publicized

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Questions 42

From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:

Options:

A.

allows Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) to enact sanctions against perpetrators of financial crime

B.

promotes financial transparency and protects the integrity of the financial systems

C.

needs to be approved by the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) before sharing between financial institutions

D.

helps financial institutions to be more effective in fighting crime with data analysis

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Questions 43

Which of the following are red flags pertaining to potentially suspicious transactions by a customer? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A customer deposits a large number of consecutively numbered money orders.

B.

A customer requests loans made to local companies or secured by obligations of local banks.

C.

A customer has regular deposits and withdrawals primarily in wire transfers.

D.

A customer receives wire transfers from different unknown accounts which are immediately wired onwards to a third party.

E.

A customer withdraws cash in amounts just under the reporting threshold.

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Questions 44

Which o! the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

B.

Mandatory attendance and review of alt financial crime trainings

C.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

D.

Setting tone from the top

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Questions 45

Which of the following best describes one of the principal threats of proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Adversary governments using sophisticated attacks to threaten critical infrastructure and sectors, including finance, health care and energy

B.

Networks of individuals and entities exploiting financial systems to move funds that will be used to acquire weapons of mass destruction or their components

C.

Transnational criminal organizations expanding their engagement into more varied types of illicit activities, including human trafficking and corruption

D.

Networks of individuals and entities raising funds to further proliferate their ideological goals wholly or in part through unlawful acts of force or violence

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Questions 46

A compliance officer at a financial institution has completed an investigation into a high-risk customer's activities and determined that there are strong indications of money laundering. The compliance officer has documented their findings and is ready to recommend offboarding the customer. However, the relationship manager responsible for the customer is resistant to the idea, citing the customer’s significant revenue contribution to the institution.

What should the compliance officer do next to ensure the appropriate escalation and decision-making process is followed?

Options:

A.

Escalate the matter to the institution's high-risk client committee, presenting the investigation findings and recommending offboarding while also acknowledging the relationship manager's concerns

B.

Proceed with offboarding the customer unilaterally based on their investigation findings and anti-money laundering (AML) concerns

C.

Attempt to persuade the relationship manager to agree with the offboarding recommendation by highlighting the potential reputational and regulatory risks associated with maintaining the relationship

D.

Delay the offboarding decision and continue monitoring the customer's activities, waiting for further evidence to solidify the case for termination

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Questions 47

A Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) serves as a national center for the receipt and analysis of suspicious activity reports (SARs) and can obtain additional information from other reporting entities relevant to:

Options:

A.

public administration.

B.

legal assessment.

C.

law enforcement.

D.

legal activity.

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Questions 48

A trust and company services provider that offers a variety of services to businesses is approached by a client interested in establishing a new company. The client requests assistance with the incorporation process, a local business address, annual maintenance services, and the designation of individuals to serve in official capacities for the new company.

Which of the following services involves a higher money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Appointing individuals to serve in official capacities of the company

B.

Annual maintenance services

C.

Provision of a local business address

D.

Company incorporation services

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Questions 49

Which situation involving a vendor presents increased AML and/or sanctions risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The vendor provides services to end users located in an area subject to economic sanctions

B.

The vendor's sales representative was a refugee from a sanctioned jurisdiction as a child

C.

The vendor is organized as a privately held company

D.

The vendor has no individuals that own or control more than 10% of the company

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Questions 50

The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.

Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?

Options:

A.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on refined oil products.

B.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on oil extraction equipment

C.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new export control regime for electronic equipment

D.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new import restriction regime for goods coming from countries that do not respect human rights

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Questions 51

The manager of a bank's KYC team discovers that a high-risk customer's activity was not reviewed last quarter as the bank's internal schedule required.

What should the KYC team manager do?

Options:

A.

Submit a referral to file a suspicious activity report (SAR)

B.

Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary

C.

Contact the customer's relationship manager to suspend account access until the periodic KYC review is completed

D.

Remove the customer from the bank's high-risk list

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Questions 52

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

B.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

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Questions 53

Which of the following is a common strategy employed by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to combat money laundering?

Options:

A.

Helping Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) to analyze the suspicious activity reports (SARs)

B.

Directly prosecuting money launderers in court

C.

Providing financial assistance to governments to strengthen their anti-money laundering efforts

D.

Raising awareness about the issue of money laundering and its consequences

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Questions 54

An oil exploration company based in France does business with oil refineries in Iran, which is subject to comprehensive Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions.

What type of OFAC sanctions should be imposed against the French company?

Options:

A.

List-based

B.

Secondary

C.

Country-based

D.

Sectoral

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Questions 55

A US bank recently received a regulatory order to remediate its AML programs, which included several violations of law.

What degree of accountability is it possible for the bank's senior management and employees to face?

Options:

A.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer is likely to face criminal prosecution because the bank received a regulatory order

B.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer and senior management can face civil prosecution but not criminal prosecution for violation of AML laws

C.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer and senior management may face personal liability if they failed to take actions while aware of AML violations at the bank

D.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer is the only individual in the company's senior management team that can face personal liability for violation of AML laws

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Questions 56

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

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Questions 57

The first line of defense is responsible for:

Options:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

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Questions 58

Which of the following is a broader risk specific to casinos and gambling?

Options:

A.

Low thresholds for transactions

B.

Frequent use of cash

C.

Cross-border transactions

D.

Weak KYC policies and procedures

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Questions 59

Which payment type presents the highest financial crime risk?

Options:

A.

A check returning a mortgage overpayment made in error

B.

A payment made to a mixer platform

C.

A regular standing order to a high-interest savings account

D.

A bill payment made to a friend after splitting a dinner bill

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Questions 60

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Questions 61

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is empowered to impose sanctions regimes against countries and terrorist organizations.

Which statements are true regarding sanctions imposed by the UNSC? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Attempts to circumvent or evade sanctions imposed by the UNSC can constitute a criminal offense if designated under local laws and regulations

B.

The UN can impose arms embargoes but cannot prohibit direct or indirect exports of other goods to specific countries

C.

Member countries of the United Nations are expected to implement and enforce sanctions imposed by the UNSC

D.

Direct breaches of sanctions imposed by the UNSC constitute a criminal offense in all member countries

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Questions 62

Which role within private banking has the best placement to identify and report money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Relationship manager

C.

Operations manager

D.

Compliance officer

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Questions 63

What are the roles of a government Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Disseminate analysis of suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports to foreign judicial systems to enhance their anti-money laundering and terrorist financing investigations and prosecutions

B.

Receive reports of suspicious transactions and suspicious activities from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

C.

Disseminate the analysis of suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports to local law enforcement agencies and foreign FIUs to combat money laundering

D.

Investigate and where appropriate prosecute all suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports received from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

E.

Analyze all suspicious transaction and suspicious activity reports received from reporting institutions or obliged institutions

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Questions 64

A large international bank's chief compliance officer (CCO) is exploring ways to enhance the bank's ability to identify suspicious activities by using intelligence data more effectively. One potential solution is to engage in public-private partnerships (PPPs) to leverage shared intelligence and enhance collaboration with government agencies.

The bank considers joining a PPP initiative with the local Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) and other financial institutions to improve its access to relevant data and intelligence. The CCO understands that while PPPs can provide significant benefits, such as improved risk detection and enhanced information sharing, there are also potential limitations, including data privacy concerns and differing priorities between public and private sector partners.

Which approach would best maximize the benefits of PPPs for the bank while mitigating the limitations associated with data sharing and intelligence?

Options:

A.

Engage in the PPP without strict data sharing protocols, allowing for open and unrestricted flow of information between the bank, FIUs, and other financial institutions

B.

Rely solely on the intelligence provided by government agencies through the PPP because they have the most comprehensive data on suspicious activities

C.

Establish a clear framework within the PPP that outlines data privacy protections and ensures that information sharing complies with legal and regulatory requirements in all jurisdictions involved

D.

Prioritize the bank’s internal data sources over external intelligence from PPPs, as internal data is easier to control and does not present data privacy challenges

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Questions 65

Which of the following is a benefit of an institution implementing machine learning to identify suspicious transactions?

Options:

A.

Adaptable to new AFC typologies through continuous model training

B.

Completely unbiased and without error through continuous model training

C.

More consistent and reliable detection outcomes

D.

Transparent and easy to explain algorithms for regulator and compliance purposes

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Questions 66

A bank is completing a periodic KYC profile review for a customer that is a small digital marketing company based in New York City.

Which of the following would be a red flag?

Options:

A.

The account activity includes deposit activity into both savings and checking accounts

B.

The account activity includes incoming funds transfers at irregular intervals from small businesses located in New York

C.

The account activity includes deposits made in multiple branches around New York City into the same account.

D.

The account activity includes frequent purchases of tickets to industry conferences and other events.

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Questions 67

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities, Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

B.

Exchange strategic information between FIUs and obliged entities

C.

Exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

Create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

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Questions 68

Tax evasion is:

Options:

A.

a deliberate attempt not to pay the tax which is due or obliged.

B.

bending the rules to pay less tax than required.

C.

not an important crime as it does not impact society.

D.

a sophisticated process which always means the same as tax avoidance.

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Questions 69

Which of the following can be considered a reliable, independent source document, data, or information?

Options:

A.

Information provided by a prospective customer

B.

Photocopy of a copy of a government-issued identity document

C.

Information obtained from an open-source database

D.

Information obtained directly from a government-managed registry

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Questions 70

The recently appointed senior money laundering reporting officer (MLRO) at a newly opened small digital bank has been instructed by the group chief compliance officer to implement an effective AML transaction monitoring system that can identify unusual and suspicious transactions.

What are important considerations for the project to select and implement the AML transaction monitoring system at the digital bank? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Whether the vendor has documented appropriate internal controls for designing system and data integration schema

B.

Whether the permissions and user access settings for reviewing, investigating, and reporting details of alerts generated by the system are commensurate with those in use at other banks

C.

Whether the monitoring system is adequate with respect to the bank's size, activities, complexity, and risks

D.

Whether the monitoring system can be configured to enable the bank to execute trend analysis of transaction activity and to identify unusual business relationships and transactions

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Questions 71

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

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Questions 72

Risks associated with real estate transactions include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person

C.

paying true market price for a property

D.

non-financed purchases

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Questions 73

Who bears the ultimate responsibility for approving a financial institution's relationship with a politically exposed person?

Options:

A.

KYC analyst

B.

Senior management

C.

Relationship manager

D.

Enhanced due diligence compliance officer

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Questions 74

The owner of a real estate investment company deposits multiple cashier's checks that were bought using cash over a three-month period, from the sale of two apartments. This account also receives several electronic transfers from other financial institutions for US$10,000 each.

What activity is considered suspicious of money laundering?

Options:

A.

Receiving electronic transfers for US$10,000 amounts from other financial institutions

B.

Using cash to buy multiple cashier's checks over a period of time

C.

Performing operations with real estate investment companies

D.

Using cashier's checks in the transactions with the real estate investment company's account

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Questions 75

What key element contributes to the effectiveness of AML training programs'?

Options:

A.

In-person training sessions

B.

Comprehensive curriculum delivered by senior management

C.

Comprehensive content with engaging delivery methods

D.

Generalized content designed to apply to a broad audience

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Questions 76

When considering purchasing AFC tools from a vendor to implement into the customer lifecycle, which of the following measures should be taken during the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Ensuring the tools are compatible and integration with current systems is possible

B.

Assessing whether internal staff members can provide training on the tools

C.

Assessing the cost of implementation and cost of maintaining the tools

D.

Basing business requirements on the features offered by the vendor's tools

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Questions 77

In the context of terrorist financing, which of the following are potential indicators of the abuse of non-profit organizations (NPOs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Involvement in community development and humanitarian aid projects

B.

Large and unaccounted cash donations from anonymous sources

C.

Operating in high-risk jurisdictions with limited oversight

D.

Frequent changes in leadership and mission statements

E.

Extensive transparency in financial reporting and governance practices

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Questions 78

The supply of goods and services can be vulnerable to corruption within a company, particularly the solicitation and receipt of bribes and kickbacks, because: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

certain contractors may receive preferential treatment, allowing them opportunities to inflate margins during the tender process

B.

unsuccessful bidders are informed of decisions and provided detailed justifications for awarding the contracts

C.

procurement and contracting processes involve the management of the tender process, which may lack sufficient oversight

D.

bids are solicited and disseminated to a wide audience through advertising and other channels.

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Questions 79

The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.

Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

fraudulent identities involving stolen or manufactured identification.

B.

suspicious behavior involving a transaction that occurs at an unusual time of day.

C.

hidden beneficial owners.

D.

transaction patterns involving transactions that exceed a certain dollar amount.

E.

anomalies involving a transaction that occurs in a location far away from the customer's usual spending patterns.

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Questions 80

Which of the following measures can help maintain the independence of BSA/AML compliance staff to ensure effective compliance controls?

Options:

A.

Establishing BSA/AML compliance staff reporting to the management of the business line in the first line of defense

B.

Ensuring BSA/AML compliance staff is primarily outsourced

C.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff a reporting line to compliance or other second line of defense internal control function

D.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff with a reporting line to the chief financial officer

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Questions 81

A legal instrument executed between two nations that governs cross-border information sharing is known as a:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Agreement.

B.

Declaration of Understanding.

C.

Memorandum of Understanding.

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty.

E.

Request for Urgent Information.

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Questions 82

How should risk-related issues be addressed to ensure the effectiveness of the three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the second line reviews, monitors, and escalates risk-related issues as needed to senior management while maintaining independent oversight from the third line

B.

Have senior management handle risk-related issues directly when possible because they are ultimately responsible for the organisation's overall risk management strategy

C.

Delegate some risk-related issues to the first line to avoid overwhelming the second line and to ensure operational efficiency

D.

Assign risk-related oversight duties to the third line to provide an independent review and address issues more effectively by avoiding conflicts of interest in the first and second lines

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Questions 83

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

Options:

A.

impose sanctions lo maintain of restore international peace and security

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

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Questions 84

Which of the options below is an indicator of potential insider activity that may warrant escalation For further investigation?

Options:

A.

A relationship manager advocates for overriding the results of the company's client risk rating model that resulted in a client's high-risk rating.

B.

An If employee shares information about a firm's risk management framework with employees of other firms at an industry convention.

C.

An investigator does not complete the automated transaction monitoring system alerts assigned to them before the time required by company procedures.

D.

A relationship manager makes an exception to company policy and proceeds with onboarding a customer without documenting a passport for customer identification

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Questions 85

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

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Questions 86

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

difficulty in tracking the originator, recipient, and source of transactions.

B.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers.

C.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system.

E.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

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Questions 87

A recruitment manager in the human resources department of a bank has shortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division. The compliance policy of the bank stipulates that proper background checks on new employees

must be completed by the recruiting team to protect the bank against potential risks, including fraud and money laundering.

Which resources would be most useful for identifying any potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Criminal history searches

B.

Personal resume

C.

Internet and public media searches

D.

Past employment records

E.

Personal references from close associates

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Questions 88

Which of the below statements are supported by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations adopted in 2012? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Customer privacy regulations should guide the development of due diligence and other money laundering and terrorist financing preventive measures.

B.

Nations should work towards implementing targeted financial sanctions in alignment with the UN Security Council.

C.

Nations should take measures to ensure there is transparency to the beneficial ownership of legal persons.

D.

Nations should establish frameworks that take a risk-based approach to prevent and mitigate money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

Governments must work toward developing identical administrative and operational frameworks for investigating and prosecuting crime.

F.

Regulators should direct Financial Institutions to establish appropriate frameworks to avoid banking higher risk customers.

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Questions 89

Using artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning-based techniques tn adverse media screening can: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

ensure that all adverse media sources are comprehensively analyzed without the need for human review.

B.

significantly reduce human errors arising from repetitive tasks by delivering consistent and highly accurate analysis.

C.

instantly identify intent behind media articles, allowing for more effective risk scoring.

D.

automate the process of identifying new information and distinguishing it from previously encountered data.

E.

cover multiple languages and scripts, surpassing the limitations of human linguistics.

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Questions 90

An AML compliance officer receives an independent audit report with a number of findings.

An appropriate response to the report would include:

Options:

A.

Drafting detailed action plans for the audit team to execute to close the findings

B.

Reperforming the testing for the controls mentioned in the findings to confirm the results of the audit

C.

Defining remedial actions based on the findings' root cause analysis

D.

Assigning responsibility for reviewing the action plan to the board of directors

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Questions 91

When a multinational organization develops its anti-financial crime (AFC) program, what is the most important consideration for ensuring compliance across different jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Ensuring sanctions coy on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws.

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide.

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations.

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations.

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Questions 92

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act permits the US government to seize funds deposited in a US correspondent account of a foreign bank, creating extraterritorial impact?

Options:

A.

Section 314(a)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 319(b)

D.

Section 319(a)

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Questions 93

Which activities would be considered money laundering red flags when reviewing the business operations of a money services business (MSB)? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer being hesitant to provide beneficiary name or address information when sending international wire transfers

B.

Cash-intensive businesses, such as convenience stores or restaurants, making large cash deposits

C.

A customer exchanging foreign currency from a higher-risk jurisdiction for domestic currency under the reporting threshold

D.

A customer using multiple accounts under different names to conduct transactions

E.

A customer completing frequent small-dollar international money transfers to their native country

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Exam Code: CAMS
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition)
Last Update: Nov 4, 2025
Questions: 313
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