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CISMP-V9 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following controls would be the MOST relevant and effective in detecting zero day attacks?

Options:

A.

Strong OS patch management

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Signature-based intrusion detection.

D.

Anomaly based intrusion detection.

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Questions 5

Which of the following is an accepted strategic option for dealing with risk?

Options:

A.

Correction.

B.

Detection.

C.

Forbearance.

D.

Acceptance

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Questions 6

Why might the reporting of security incidents that involve personal data differ from other types of security incident?

Options:

A.

Personal data is not highly transient so its 1 investigation rarely involves the preservation of volatile memory and full forensic digital investigation.

B.

Personal data is normally handled on both IT and non-IT systems so such incidents need to be managed in two streams.

C.

Data Protection legislation normally requires the reporting of incidents involving personal data to a Supervisory Authority.

D.

Data Protection legislation is process-oriented and focuses on quality assurance of procedures and governance rather than data-focused event investigation

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Questions 7

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for undertaking Continual Professional Development (CPD) within the Information Security sphere?

Options:

A.

Professional qualification bodies demand CPD.

B.

Information Security changes constantly and at speed.

C.

IT certifications require CPD and Security needs to remain credible.

D.

CPD is a prerequisite of any Chartered Institution qualification.

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Questions 8

What aspect of an employee's contract of employment Is designed to prevent the unauthorised release of confidential data to third parties even after an employee has left their employment?

Options:

A.

Segregation of Duties.

B.

Non-disclosure.

C.

Acceptable use policy.

D.

Security clearance.

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Questions 9

Which of the following is NOT a valid statement to include in an organisation's security policy?

Options:

A.

The policy has the support of Board and the Chief Executive.

B.

The policy has been agreed and amended to suit all third party contractors.

C.

How the organisation will manage information assurance.

D.

The compliance with legal and regulatory obligations.

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Questions 10

What type of diagram used in application threat modeling includes malicious users as well as descriptions like mitigates and threatens?

Options:

A.

Threat trees.

B.

STRIDE charts.

C.

Misuse case diagrams.

D.

DREAD diagrams.

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Questions 11

Which security framework impacts on organisations that accept credit cards, process credit card transactions, store relevant data or transmit credit card data?

Options:

A.

PCI DSS.

B.

TOGAF.

C.

ENISA NIS.

D.

Sarbanes-Oxiey

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Questions 12

Which of the following international standards deals with the retention of records?

Options:

A.

PCI DSS.

B.

RFC1918.

C.

IS015489.

D.

ISO/IEC 27002.

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Questions 13

What types of web application vulnerabilities continue to be the MOST prolific according to the OWASP Top 10?

Options:

A.

Poor Password Management.

B.

Insecure Deserialsiation.

C.

Injection Flaws.

D.

Security Misconfiguration

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Questions 14

Which standard deals with the implementation of business continuity?

Options:

A.

ISO/IEC 27001

B.

COBIT

C.

IS0223G1.

D.

BS5750.

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Questions 15

Which of the following is an asymmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

DES.

B.

AES.

C.

ATM.

D.

RSA.

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Questions 16

A system administrator has created the following "array" as an access control for an organisation.

Developers: create files, update files.

Reviewers: upload files, update files.

Administrators: upload files, delete fifes, update files.

What type of access-control has just been created?

Options:

A.

Task based access control.

B.

Role based access control.

C.

Rule based access control.

D.

Mandatory access control.

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Questions 17

What are the different methods that can be used as access controls?

1. Detective.

2. Physical.

3. Reactive.

4. Virtual.

5. Preventive.

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4.

B.

1, 2 and 3.

C.

1, 2 and 5.

D.

3, 4 and 5.

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Questions 18

When establishing objectives for physical security environments, which of the following functional controls SHOULD occur first?

Options:

A.

Delay.

B.

Drop.

C.

Deter.

D.

Deny.

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Questions 19

How does the use of a "single sign-on" access control policy improve the security for an organisation implementing the policy?

Options:

A.

Password is better encrypted for system authentication.

B.

Access control logs are centrally located.

C.

Helps prevent the likelihood of users writing down passwords.

D.

Decreases the complexity of passwords users have to remember.

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Questions 20

Which of the following is often the final stage in the information management lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Disposal.

B.

Creation.

C.

Use.

D.

Publication.

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Questions 21

When considering the disposal of confidential data, equipment and storage devices, what social engineering technique SHOULD always be taken into consideration?

Options:

A.

Spear Phishing.

B.

Shoulder Surfing.

C.

Dumpster Diving.

D.

Tailgating.

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Questions 22

Which standards framework offers a set of IT Service Management best practices to assist organisations in aligning IT service delivery with business goals - including security goals?

Options:

A.

ITIL.

B.

SABSA.

C.

COBIT

D.

ISAGA.

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Questions 23

Geoff wants to ensure the application of consistent security settings to devices used throughout his organisation whether as part of a mobile computing or a BYOD approach.

What technology would be MOST beneficial to his organisation?

Options:

A.

VPN.

B.

IDS.

C.

MDM.

D.

SIEM.

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Questions 24

In terms of security culture, what needs to be carried out as an integral part of security by all members of an organisation and is an essential component to any security regime?

Options:

A.

The 'need to known principle.

B.

Verification of visitor's ID

C.

Appropriate behaviours.

D.

Access denial measures

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Questions 25

What term is used to describe the testing of a continuity plan through a written scenario being used as the basis for discussion and simul-ation?

Options:

A.

End-to-end testing.

B.

Non-dynamic modeling

C.

Desk-top exercise.

D.

Fault stressing

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Questions 26

Why should a loading bay NEVER be used as a staff entrance?

Options:

A.

Loading bays are intrinsically vulnerable, so minimising the people traffic makes securing the areas easier and more effective.

B.

Loading bays are often dirty places, and staff could find their clothing damaged or made less appropriate for the office.

C.

Most countries have specific legislation covering loading bays and breaching this could impact on insurance status.

D.

Staff should always enter a facility via a dedicated entrance to ensure smooth access and egress.

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Questions 27

Which of the following uses are NOT usual ways that attackers have of leveraging botnets?

Options:

A.

Generating and distributing spam messages.

B.

Conducting DDOS attacks.

C.

Scanning for system & application vulnerabilities.

D.

Undertaking vishing attacks

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Questions 28

What form of risk assessment is MOST LIKELY to provide objective support for a security Return on Investment case?

Options:

A.

ISO/IEC 27001.

B.

Qualitative.

C.

CPNI.

D.

Quantitative

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Questions 29

Which of the following acronyms covers the real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware?

Options:

A.

CERT

B.

SIEM.

C.

CISM.

D.

DDoS.

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Questions 30

Once data has been created In a standard information lifecycle, what step TYPICALLY happens next?

Options:

A.

Data Deletion.

B.

Data Archiving.

C.

Data Storage.

D.

Data Publication

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Exam Code: CISMP-V9
Exam Name: BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0
Last Update: Jun 27, 2025
Questions: 100
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