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APM-PFQ Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

What is the purpose of a stakeholder grid?

Options:

A.

A means of stakeholder identification.

B.

It provides a statement of the stakeholder communications plan.

C.

To understand a stakeholder's position in relation to the project.

D.

It presents an action plan for stakeholder management.

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Questions 5

Which statement regarding the purpose of the business case would be the most true?

Options:

A.

Once agreed the business case will become the baseline by which the project will be deployed,

B.

It will act as a reference for the project team regarding the specific. processes to be used forproject delivery.

C.

It will determine which stakeholders are most eligible to become members of the steering group,

D.

It will be referred to throughout the project in order to make decisions about the continuing viability of the project.

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Questions 6

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost estimating.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

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Questions 7

You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As A. minimum, what should this plan include?

Options:

A.

A. summary of the project acceptance criteria.

B.

CVs of all the team members.

C.

Details Of previous similar projects.

D.

Resourcing details for quality reviews.

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Questions 8

What would be the most direct symptom of poor quality in the project?

Options:

A.

The project not using compliant management processes.

B.

The customer refusing to take delivery of the finished product.

C.

The failure of a quality assurance audit.

D.

The project finishing over budget.

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Questions 9

What is the main objective of an audit?

Options:

A.

Provide assurance to the project sponsor that the project is going to finish

on time and within budget.

B.

Provide feedback to the project manager with regard to their performance in managing the project.

C.

Provide assurance to the sponsor that the project is being managed using the agreed governance and process.

D.

Provide a report of the current status of the project regarding cost and schedule performance.

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Questions 10

What could be considered a significant barrier to communication?

Options:

A.

Use of body language.

B.

Having formal meetings.

C.

Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

D.

Use of informal communication channels

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Questions 11

From the project sponsor's viewpoint, which of the following is not an important aspect of the project communication plan?

Options:

A.

How issues are to be escalated from project manager to project sponsor.

B.

Understanding stakeholders' power and influence.

C.

When project workshops are to be held.

D.

Reference to higher level corporate policies.

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Questions 12

A key output of a well-controlled configuration management process is:

Options:

A.

documented traceability between versions of each configuration item.

B.

that the project is most likely to meet its success criteria.

C.

documented evidence of all project changes: proposed. authorised, rejected or deferred.

D.

an agreed point after which no further changes to scope will be considered.

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Questions 13

A portfolio can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.

B.

A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

C.

A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

D.

A range of products and services offered by an organisation.

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Questions 14

Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

Options:

A.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor.

B.

A. draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case.

C.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.

D.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager

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Questions 15

One way that communication could be improved in the project is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that free flowing feedback channels are planned into the communication structure.

B.

ensure that communication is carried out as much as possible, transmitting as much information as possible.

C.

target only those stakeholders who seem to show a valid interest in the project.

D.

avoid planning communication too much so that messages are not seen as rigid and overly complex.

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Questions 16

The deployment baseline is the ______ for progress monitoring.

Options:

A.

decision gate.

B.

starting point.

C.

end point.

D.

outline schedule.

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Questions 17

What information would you not expect to see in a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Quality management plan.

B.

Financial feasibility analysis.

C.

Risk management plan.

D.

Details of scope.

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Questions 18

Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?

Options:

A.

A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project

B.

A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs

C.

The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product

D.

The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired

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Questions 19

Configuration management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the process through which all requests to change the approved baseline of a project is captured. evaluated and then approved. rejected or deferred.

B.

the system that ensures that all changes to configuration items are controlled and the interrelationships between items are identified.

C.

the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work.

D.

A report of the current status and history of all changes to the configuration, together with a complete record of what has happened to the configuration to date.

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Questions 20

Which one of the following is the correct definition of an issue?

Options:

A.

Any major problem that the project team has to deal with.

B.

A. problem that is the responsibility of the Project Manager.

C.

An uncertain event that should it occur would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A. threat to project objectives that cannot be resolved by the Project Manager.

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Questions 21

While carrying out quality management for the project, you have been assigned the task of determining the quality standards that are applicable and how they should apply. Which part of quality management would best describe this activity?

Options:

A.

Quality planning.

B.

Quality assurance.

C.

Total quality.

D.

Quality control.

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Questions 22

What rule of thumb. can be used for ensuring that key stakeholders have been included in the process?

Options:

A.

Make use Of widely available templates and predefined structures to ensure a complete spectrum of stakeholders are identified.

B.

Ask the most influential stakeholders to identify who else they think Should be involved in the project.

C.

Analyse Other projects and who their stakeholders are and include them by default.

D.

Question whose support or lack of it might significantly influence the success of the project

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Questions 23

Which phase of the project life cycle will utilize the new project and enable the acceptance and use of the benefits?

Options:

A.

Adoption.

B.

Transition.

C.

Deployment.

D.

Implementation.

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Questions 24

Which of the following disadvantages applies to video conferencing?

Options:

A.

A level of technological expertise is required.

B.

Body language can reinforce the message.

C.

It is harder to maintain concentration.

D.

There are increased costs of getting to the meeting.

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Questions 25

Within which phases of a project life cycle are risks identified?

Options:

A.

Within the end phase.

B.

Within the initial phases.

C.

Within the deployment phase.

D.

Within each phase.

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Questions 26

Which of the following provides the project manager with a formal overview of project quality?

Options:

A.

Design reviews

B.

Project definition reports.

C.

Quality audits.

D.

Historical experience.

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Questions 27

Configuration management is best described as:

Options:

A.

control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.

B.

an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.

C.

quality control of project deliverables and documentation.

D.

creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

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Questions 28

Which of the following defines the term 'deployment baseline'?

Options:

A.

The starting point for creating a resource histogram.

B.

The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure.

C.

The starting point for the monitoring of project risks.

D.

The basis for progress monitoring.

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Questions 29

Which one of the following statements BEST defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure(PBS)?

Options:

A.

To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project

B.

To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies

C.

To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover

D.

To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project

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Questions 30

How does having a business case help an organisation?

Options:

A.

It provides a documented account of the decisions that have been made and by whom in the planning of the project's finances, ensuring the project's compliance with recognized governance standards

B.

It provides an overview of how the project will deliver the scheduled progress over the period agreed between the project manager, sponsor and other key stakeholders associated with the project.

C.

It provides a means by which the sponsor can monitor the project manager's performance in relation to the plans documented in the business case and highlight points at which a change of project manager may be necessary.

D.

It provides a recognized framework by which project spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted returns.

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Questions 31

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Questions 32

Estimating by using historical information is known as:

Options:

A.

comparative estimating.

B.

parametric estimating.

C.

bottom-up estimating.

D.

strategic estimating.

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Questions 33

Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

Options:

A.

A. summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.

B.

A. summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

C.

A. tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.

D.

A. tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

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Questions 34

What would be a most likely result for an organisation following a PESTLE analysis?

Options:

A.

The organisation would know what political change is most likely and therefore the impacts on objectives considered.

B.

The organisation would most likely have a number of options available as to how the desired objectives could be achieved.

C.

The organisation would have an understanding of the necessary skills required to deliver the objectives required.

D The organisation would be able to develop an accurate estimate of the costs and time frame forthe objectives to be achieved.

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Questions 35

What aspect of business case development will assist project management the most?

Options:

A.

That the sponsor who has developed the business case will also be the sponsor who oversees actual delivery of the project.

B.

That the option chosen has taken recognition of how the resultant project is actually going to be managed and delivered.

C.

That the project management plan for the project is captured as an appendix of the approved business case.

D.

That the business case has sufficient detail to allow the project manager to take over accountability for the financial success of the project

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Questions 36

How should issues be prioritised?

Options:

A.

The time order in which the issues occurred.

B.

The impact on success criteria and benefits.

C.

The relative seniority of the issue owner.

D.

The relationship with A. relevant risk.

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Questions 37

Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process?

Options:

A.

Share the issue with stakeholders.

B.

Track the issue to closure.

C.

Escalate to the sponsor.

D.

Apply change control.

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Questions 38

What is a likely benefit of re-estimating throughout the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The project will be much more economically viable.

B.

The business case is justified to a greater degree.

C.

Overall project duration is reduced.

D.

Reduction in contingency reserves are achieved.

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Questions 39

A project stakeholder could best be described as:

Options:

A.

A member of the sponsoring organisation's board of directors.

B.

A key player who is seeking to maximize control over the project

C.

A person or group who has an interest in or is impacted by the project.

D.

A project team member who has the skills necessary to deliver the project

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Questions 40

The purpose of project progress reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure a simpler critical path.

B.

enable the tracking of project deliverables.

C.

ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

D.

provide an increased total float.

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Questions 41

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?

Options:

A.

Verification.

B.

Request.

C.

Closure.

D.

Justification

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Questions 42

In project management quality is best defined as:

Options:

A.

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.

reviews and audits.

C.

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.

professionally-bound project reports.

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Questions 43

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

Options:

A.

identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B.

identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

C.

identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

D.

satisfy the organisation's project management process.

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Questions 44

To be considered effective. how should quality management be used in the project?

Options:

A.

To ensure compliance.

B.

To ensure quality standards are met.

C.

To ensure the required process needs of stakeholders are met.

D.

To ensure both the project outputs and the processes meet the required needs of stakeholders.

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Questions 45

What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to stakeholders prior to any work being started?

Options:

A.

Verified work breakdown structure.

B.

Deployment baseline.

C.

Configuration record.

D.

Business case.

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Questions 46

A project communication plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

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Questions 47

One purpose of a typical project business case is to:

Options:

A.

carry out earned value analysis.

B.

allocate resources to the project.

C.

analyse cost-benefit of the project.

D.

plan project work packages

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Questions 48

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

Options:

A.

quality assurance.

B.

quality planning.

C.

quality control.

D.

quality audit.

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Questions 49

How is 'quality' best defined?

Options:

A.

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements.

C.

A. discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the processes by which they are delivered meet stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose.

D.

The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of the project.

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Questions 50

Which one of the following best describes stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Anyone who has heard about the project.

B.

Anyone who has an opinion about how the project should be managed.

C.

People wanting to be members of the project team.

D.

People who are affected by the project in some way.

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Questions 51

Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

Options:

A.

External stakeholders.

B.

The end users.

C.

The finance director.

D.

The project manager

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Questions 52

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its lifecycle

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Questions 53

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activity against a calendar called?

Options:

A.

A Gantt chart.

B.

A critical path network.

C.

A product flow diagram.

D.

A Pareto chart.

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Questions 54

Which of the following is a part of change control?

Options:

A.

Requests for change are realised.

B.

Requests for change are mitigated.

C.

Requests for change are evaluated.

D.

Requests for change are resolved.

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Questions 55

Configuration management is defined as a process which enables:

Options:

A.

the creation, maintenance, controlled change and the quality control of a scope of work.

B.

a structured approach to move an organisation from a current state to a future desired state.

C.

the safeguarding of stakeholder benefits, outputs and outcomes to requirements.

D.

the identification of differences would affect successful completion of objectives.

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Questions 56

Which one of these categories would best represent project issues?

Options:

A.

Uncertain events that may or may not occur.

B.

Opportunities that occur through change control.

C.

Problems that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

D.

Threats to the project which cannot be resolved by the project manager.

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Questions 57

Which of the following estimating techniques utilizes work packages, assigning costs and consolidating to provide a project estimate?

Options:

A.

Analytical.

B.

Comparative.

C.

Parametric.

D.

Strategic.

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Questions 58

Who is primarily responsible for ensuring the implementation of formal change control?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders.

B.

The Project Manager.

C.

The project sponsor.

D.

The project team.

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Questions 59

Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they:

Options:

A.

contribute to the project's procurement strategy.

B.

help satisfy the project's resource requirements.

C.

provide acceptance certificates based on quality of resources supplied.

D.

determine the quality requirements of goods supplied.

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Questions 60

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure.

B.

Organisational breakdown structure.

C.

Product breakdown structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure

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Questions 61

What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan?

Options:

A.

The project is more likely to finish on time.

B.

There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards.

C.

The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.

D.

There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering.

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Questions 62

Which type of projects needs to consider environmental constraints?

Options:

A.

Construction projects only.

B.

Construction and petrochemical projects only.

C.

All but IT projects.

D.

All projects.

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Questions 63

Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a project's business case?

Options:

A.

A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/deliverables and satisfaction.

B.

The reasons why the project sponsor wants their project to proceed.

C.

A statement on how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor.

D.

Provides justification for undertaking the project, in terms of evaluating the benefits, cost and risks

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Questions 64

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

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Questions 65

Which of the following best describes a project's context?

Options:

A.

The environment in which the business operates.

B.

The geographic location in which the project is undertaken.

C.

The external and internal business environments including stakeholder's interests and influences.

D Industry and business sector practices.

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Questions 66

The purpose of PESTLE analysis is to:

Options:

A.

understand the project's external operating environment.

B.

prioritise requirements that should be included in the project.

C.

periodically review the financial viability of the project.

D.

determine the project team's strengths and weaknesses.

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Questions 67

Which one of the following statements best describes resource scheduling?

Options:

A.

A. process which identifies activities that will need project resources.

B.

A. process to assign roles to project resources.

C.

A. process that identifies when resources are needed.

D.

A. process to estimate the project resources.

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Questions 68

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 69

The post project review report should be:

Options:

A.

included in the project plan for the next similar project.

B.

restricted in circulation in case it contains critical information.

C.

archived for use in a future audit of project management processes.

D.

available to all project managers within the organisation

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Questions 70

What is the likely decision to arise from the response stage of the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Whether to proceed with the project or recommend termination.

B.

Whether the process being used is robust enough for the project being undertaken.

C.

Whether to proactively invest to bring the exposure to risk within tolerable levels.

D.

Whether to use brainstorming or a workshop to decide on the best response.

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Questions 71

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Options:

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

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Questions 72

Benefits management ends once the benefits have been:

Options:

A.

defined.

B.

quantified.

C.

realised.

D.

conceived.

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Questions 73

Which of the following is a project?

Options:

A.

Introducing a new information technology system.

B.

Operating a national rail network.

C.

Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces.

D.

Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians

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Questions 74

Why is environmental analysis the most important analysis for an organisation to undertake?

Options:

A.

It allows the detailed execution plans, to be defined, that are likely to be developed in order to deliver the project.

B.

It is the only way in which the scope of the project can be identified and detailed in plans.

C.

It identifies the problems, opportunities or business needs which may require some degree of response.

D It is the only form of detailed planning that can be carried out in the earliest phases of the project life cycle.

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Questions 75

Which of the following is true regarding differences between linear and iterative life cycles?

Options:

A.

A linear life cycle is best for evolving projects whereas an iterative life cycle is better for more structured projects.

B.

A linear life cycle is sequential whereas an iterative life cycle repeats one or more phases.

C.

A linear life cycle is always longer in duration whereas an iterative life cycle is always shorter in its duration.

D.

A linear life cycle is formally managed by A. dedicated project manager whereas management responsibility is shared in an iterative life cycle

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Questions 76

Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a project governance board?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor, project manager and quality manager.

B.

Corporate management, project sponsor, quality manager and project office.

C.

Sponsor, supplier representative and user representative.

D Sponsor, project manager and senior project team members.

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Questions 77

A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to:

Options:

A.

mitigate all possible risks to the project.

B.

identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project.

C.

control technological change during the project.

D.

consider team social roles in early stages of the project

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Questions 78

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a...

Options:

A.

decision gate.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review.

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Questions 79

Critical path analysis places emphasis upon:

Options:

A.

risks

B.

resources

C.

milestones

D.

activities

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Questions 80

Which one of the following would NOT typically be part of procurement?

Options:

A.

Estimating.

B.

Engagement of external suppliers.

C.

Definition of items to be acquired.

D.

Bidding.

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Questions 81

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of a linear project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Deployment, Concept, Definition, Transition.

B.

Concept, Transition, Definition, Deployment.

C.

Concept, Definition, Deployment, Transition.

D.

Transition, Definition, Deployment, Concept

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Questions 82

Which one of the following best describes project management?

Options:

A.

Using APM's Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.

B.

Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.

C.

Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.

D.

Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

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Questions 83

On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined?

Options:

A.

By assessing its probability of occurrence.

B.

By assessing its impact on project objectives,

C.

By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives.

D.

By assessing its effect on the business case.

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Questions 84

What is the main reason for an initial high-level review of a change request?

Options:

A.

To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this stage.

B.

To establish who might be the best stakeholders to be involved in the change.

C.

To ensure that the change request is considered as soon as possible.

D.

To implement the necessary actions to ensure the change has a smooth implementation.

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Questions 85

How can the project manager ensure a sound stakeholder environment?

Options:

A.

Ensure that stakeholders who oppose the project are not involved

B.

Develop an environment where all stakeholder's needs are satisfied.

C.

Develop ways of understanding the needs of stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that the influence stakeholders have is reduced.

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Questions 86

When in the project life cycle might analogous estimating be most commonly used?

Options:

A.

Transition.

B.

Concept

C.

Deployment.

D.

Definition.

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Questions 87

Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

Options:

A.

A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.

B.

Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.

C.

It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.

D.

Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

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Questions 88

Which of the following would be considered as a valid objective for the post project review?

Options:

A.

Plan the next project for the project team.

B.

Make proposals for the operation of the project deliverables.

C.

Improve future estimating accuracy.

D.

Plan how to complete the objectives of the project.

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Questions 89

The primary purpose of a product breakdown structure (PBS) is to:

Options:

A.

define all the products that the project will produce.

B.

define precisely what resources will be used on the project.

C.

detail all the products in order of priority.

D.

map out the key project elements identified in the business plan

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Questions 90

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project life cycle.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle

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Questions 91

Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:

Options:

A.

components of each product.

B.

budget of each product.

C.

benefits of each product.

D.

risks of each product.

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Questions 92

Portfolio management includes prioritising:

Options:

A.

projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation's strategic objectives.

B.

projects with exceptionally high returns on investment.

C.

projects and programmes over business as usual.

D.

projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment

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Questions 93

Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

Options:

A.

People working collaboratively towards a common goal.

B.

Developing skills that will enhance project performance.

C.

Gathering the right people together to work on a project.

D.

Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

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Questions 94

Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the change.

B.

Advise the sponsor.

C.

Update the change log.

D.

Update the project plan.

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Questions 95

Which of the following would be considered as the main purpose of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

To provide a documented account of the outcomes of the planning process.

B.

To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale.

C.

To provide A. record of how the project was planned, for archiving in the organisation's lessons learned.

D.

To identify and record the projects intended financial spend over the period of project delivery.

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Questions 96

A project management plan could best be described as:

Options:

A.

an activity on a network diagram.

B.

A. Gantt chart.

C.

A. plan for the programme.

D.

an overall plan for the project.

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Questions 97

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Options:

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

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Questions 98

The combination of which two structures creates the responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)?

Options:

A.

OBS and CBS.

B.

OBS and WBS.

C.

PBS and CBS.

D.

WBS and CBS.

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Questions 99

Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Evaluation.

B.

Identification.

C.

Registration.

D.

Justification.

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Questions 100

Which of the following is true of the project environment?

Options:

A.

Within the environment are the factors that influence and impact projects.

B.

Only certain types of projects are influenced by the environment.

C.

The project environment will only really impact the project at the start.

D There is no real way of determining the true project environment.

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Questions 101

A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a:

Options:

A.

gate review.

B.

learning review.

C.

handover review.

D.

audit review.

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Questions 102

Which of the following is not a benefit to using a hybrid project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Provides a framework that is universally applicable.

B.

Speeds up deployment and benefits realization.

C.

Focuses on the most useful interim deliverables.

D.

Augments and strengthens predictive deployment.

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Questions 103

A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

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Questions 104

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

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Questions 105

Throughout the life of the project. issues that are raised are in the:

Options:

A.

quality register.

B.

issue register.

C.

change register.

D.

risk register.

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Questions 106

A typical issue management process could follow the steps:

Options:

A.

identification, escalation. action, resolution.

B.

assessment, escalation, closure, resolution.

C.

assessment, planning, action, response.

D.

identification, planning, response, resolution.

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Questions 107

Who is primarily responsible for configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

Project manager,

B.

Risk manager.

C.

Quality manager.

D.

The project team.

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Questions 108

An extended project life cycle can be defined as:

Options:

A.

an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle.

B.

an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.

C.

a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed.

D.

a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.

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Questions 109

Which of the following defines the term 'risk'?

Options:

A.

The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives.

B.

A problem that is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.

C.

Scope creep within an uncontrolled project.

D.

The use of estimation to determine costs, resources and activities.

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Questions 110

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used?

Options:

A.

The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

B.

The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated.

C.

Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.

D.

The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists.

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Questions 111

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

Options:

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

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Questions 112

What is the main aim of the communication plan?

Options:

A.

To increase the chances of achieving effective engagement.

B.

To comply with the structure of the project management plan.

C.

To identify the skills necessary to deliver a project.

D.

To increase the likelihood of benefits realisation.

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Questions 113

Scope management in an iterative life cycle would ensure that:

Options:

A.

the must have' requirements are given the top priority for delivery.

B.

the scope is identified at a deeper level in the project.

C.

all stakeholders get what they want from the project.

D.

areas of the project that will be delivered are fully agreed

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Questions 114

What are the likely results of building agile working into a or programme?

Options:

A.

Reduced schedule time.

B.

increased cost.

C.

Increased efficiency and flexibility.

D.

Reduced risk

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Questions 115

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

Options:

A.

1, 2 & 3

B.

1, 2 & 4

C.

1, 3 & 4

D.

2, 3 & 4

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Questions 116

What is the main purpose of iterations in an iterative life cycle?

Options:

A.

To reassure stakeholders that the project will deliver as expected

B.

To progressively elaborate and improve understanding based on client interaction.

C.

To allow time for a thorough project management plan to be developed.

D.

To ensure that the project manager appointed understands exactly what is required

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Questions 117

Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles anditerative life cycles?

Options:

A.

Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project.

B.

In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline.

C.

Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review.

D.

Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review

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Questions 118

An issue that results in a change to scope or the baseline plan should be managed through:

Options:

A.

configuration control.

B.

change management.

C.

change control.

D.

scope management.

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Questions 119

Which one of the following is NOT typically associated with a project's context?

Options:

A.

The issues and areas that matter to stakeholders.

B.

Technical, social or political considerations.

C.

The environment in which the project is being carried out.

D.

The sequence and dependencies of activities.

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Questions 120

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case?

Options:

A.

Safety plan for the project.

B.

Implementation options.

C.

Stakeholder identification.

D.

Business benefits.

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Questions 121

Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?

Options:

A.

A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.

B.

A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.

C.

A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.

D.

A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.

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Questions 122

In project management, the term quality is best defined as:

Options:

A.

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.

reviews and audits.

C.

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.

professionally-bound project reports.

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Exam Code: APM-PFQ
Exam Name: APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)
Last Update: Jul 27, 2025
Questions: 409
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