Which of the following has significantly reduced the number of small dollar invoices to be processed?
Petty cash
Evaluated receipt settlement
Electronic data interchange
Payment cards
Payment cards, such as procurement cards (P-cards) or corporate credit cards, have significantly reduced the number of small dollar invoices processed by accounts payable departments. Byconsolidating small, recurring, or low-value purchases onto a single card statement, organizations can avoid processing individual invoices for each transaction, streamlining AP workflows and reducing administrative costs.
The web source from Corcentric states: “Payment cards, like P-cards, significantly reduce the number of small dollar invoices by consolidating multiple purchases into a single statement, minimizing AP processing efforts.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are less relevant:
Petty cash (A)is used for small cash transactions but does not reduce invoice volume, as it typically bypasses invoicing.
Evaluated receipt settlement (B)eliminates invoices for specific purchases but is not primarily focused on small dollar transactions.
Electronic data interchange (C)automates invoice data exchange but does not inherently reduce the number of invoices.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including the role of payment cards in optimizing AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the use of payment cards to reduce small dollar invoice processing.
What is the current thinking on the practice of maintaining a petty cash fund?
It’s practically obsolete and should be eliminated, if possible
Three separate individuals should sign off on disbursements
It’s considered a best practice within service organizations and consulting businesses
It should be maintained by an executive in the treasury department
The current thinking on maintaining a petty cash fund is that it ispractically obsolete and should be eliminated, if possible, due to the availability of more efficient and secure alternatives, such as payment cards or electronic reimbursements. Petty cash funds are prone to mismanagement, theft, and lack of oversight, and modern AP practices favor digital solutions for small transactions.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “Petty cash funds are increasingly considered obsolete, as payment cards and electronic reimbursements offer more secure and trackable alternatives for small transactions.” This directly supports Option A. The other options are incorrect:
Option B: Requiring three individuals to sign off is excessive and not a standard practice.
Option C: Petty cash is not considered a best practice, even in service or consulting businesses.
Option D: Petty cash is typically managed by AP or administrative staff, not treasury executives.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including best practices for managing small transactions. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the trend toward eliminating petty cash in favor of modern payment methods.
On a procurement card statement, which of the following levels of purchase detail is necessary in order to conduct spend analysis?
Level 1 detail
Level 2 detail
Level 3 detail
Level 4 detail
Procurement card (P-card) statements provide purchase data at different levels of detail. Level 3 detail includes comprehensive transaction information, such as itemized descriptions, quantities, unit prices, and merchant category codes, making it suitable for conducting spend analysis to track spending patterns and optimize procurement strategies. Level 1 provides basic data (e.g., merchant name, amount), and Level 2 includes additional data (e.g., tax amounts), but neither is sufficient for detailed analysis. Level 4 is not a standard term in P-card reporting.
The web source from Corcentric explains: “Level 3 data on P-card statements includes detailed transaction information, such as line-item details and quantities, enabling organizations to perform robust spend analysis.” This confirms that Level 3 detail (Option C) is necessary for spend analysis.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including P-card program management and reporting. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the use of Level 3 data for effective spend analysis in P-card programs.
Which of the following techniques is NOT recommended to help protect confidential data?
When leaving your work area even briefly, lock your computer down
Save reports to a portable USB drive and give that to the requestor instead of emailing them
When approached at your desk, turn off your monitor and turn papers face down
Shred unneeded paper documents or put them in a secure disposal container
Protecting confidential data in accounts payable requires secure practices to prevent unauthorized access. Locking your computer when leaving your work area (Option A), turning off your monitor and securing papers when approached (Option C), and shredding or securely disposing of unneeded documents (Option D) are recommended techniques to safeguard sensitive information. However, saving reports to a portable USB drive and giving it to a requestor (Option B) is not recommended, as USB drives are easily lost, stolen, or compromised, posing a significant security risk compared to secure email or file-sharing systems.
The web source from Esker states: “To protect confidential AP data, lock computers when unattended, secure physical documents, and use secure disposal methods. Avoid using portable devices like USB drives for data transfer due to security risks.” This directly supports Options A, C, and D, while identifying Option B as an insecure practice.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including data security practices. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with secure data handling, ruling out the use of USB drives for sensitive reports.
To protect your organization from employee fraud, which of the following controls should be employed?
Require that all potential employees sign an NDA prior to hire
Ensure all staff members have accounting degrees from accredited universities
Hire only temporary employees and rotate them out every six to eight months
Conduct detailed background checks on all new AP employees
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes preventing employee fraud through robust controls, particularly in AP, where access to payments and vendor data creates risks.Conducting detailed background checkson new AP employees is a standard control to verify integrity and reduce the risk of fraudulent behavior. Other options, such as NDAs, accounting degrees, or temporary hiring, are less effective or irrelevant for fraud prevention.
Option A (Require that all potential employees sign an NDA prior to hire): Non-disclosure agreements (NDAs) protect confidential information but do not directly prevent fraud, which involves financial misconduct (e.g., embezzlement). This is not a primary fraud control.
Option B (Ensure all staff members have accounting degrees): An accounting degree does not guarantee honesty or prevent fraud. Many AP roles require practical skills, not formal degrees. This is not a fraud control.
Option C (Hire only temporary employees and rotate them out): Temporary staffing and frequent rotation disrupt continuity and may increase fraud risk due to lack of accountability. This is not a fraud control.
Option D (Conduct detailed background checks on all new AP employees): Background checks verify criminal history, credit issues, and past employment, identifying potential fraud risks. This is a standard and effective control. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “To prevent employee fraud, organizations should implement controls like detailed background checks for AP staff to ensure trustworthiness.” It lists background checks as a key measure, alongside segregation of duties and surprise audits, but does not mention NDAs, degrees, or temporary staffing as fraud prevention controls. The training video reinforces this, citing background checks as essential for roles with financial access.
Ways to reduce the cost of processing an invoice include:
III only (Reducing the amount of manual data entry)
I, II, and III (Eliminating the approval process, Reducing the amount of paper handling, Reducing the amount of manual data entry)
II and III only (Reducing the amount of paper handling, Reducing the amount of manual data entry)
I and II only (Eliminating the approval process, Reducing the amount of paper handling)
Reducing the cost of invoice processing involves streamlining workflows and minimizing labor-intensive tasks. Reducing paper handling (e.g., through e-invoicing or digital workflows) and manual data entry (e.g., through optical character recognition or automation) are proven methods to lower costs. Eliminating the approval process entirely (Option I) is not a recommended practice, as it increases the risk of errors and fraud, undermining internal controls.
The web source from NetSuite states: “Automation and digitization can significantly reduce invoice processing costs by minimizing manual data entry and paper-based processes… Technologies like OCR and e-invoicing reduce the need for physical handling and manual input.” The Esker source adds: “Reducing paper handling and manual data entry are key to lowering AP processing costs, as they eliminate time-consuming tasks.” These sources confirm that Options II and III are effective cost-reduction strategies, while Option I is not supported, as approvals are a critical control.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Invoices” and “Technology and Automation,” emphasizing efficient invoice processing. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” includes adopting automation to reduce manual tasks, aligning with Options II and III.
In which ways can the accounts payable specialist benefit the organization as a whole? I. Meet the organization’s commitments; II. Communicate to management barriers to performance; III. Maintain positive relationships with suppliers.
II and III only
I and III only
I, II, and III
I and II only
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the strategic role of accounts payable (AP) specialists in managing vendor data and relationships, which directly benefits the organization. AP specialists contribute by ensuring timely payments to meet commitments, communicating operational challenges to management, and fostering positive supplier relationships, all of which enhance organizational efficiency and reputation.
Item I (Meet the organization’s commitments): AP specialists ensure invoices areprocessed and paid on time, meeting the organization’s financial obligations to vendors. This supports trust and operational continuity.
Item II (Communicate to management barriers to performance): AP specialists identify issues such as process bottlenecks, system inefficiencies, or vendor disputes and report them to management, enabling proactive solutions.
Item III (Maintain positive relationships with suppliers): By managing the vendor master file, resolving disputes, and ensuring timely payments, AP specialists foster strong supplier relationships, which can lead to better terms and reliability.
Option A (II and III only): Incorrect, as it excludes I, which is a core AP function.
Option B (I and III only): Incorrect, as it excludes II, which is also a key responsibility.
Option C (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items represent ways AP specialists benefit the organization.
Option D (I and II only): Incorrect, as it excludes III, which is critical for vendor management.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “AP specialists add value by ensuring accurate vendor data, timely payments to meet organizational commitments, and strong supplier relationships.” It also notes that “communicating barriers to performance, such as delays or system issues, helps management optimize AP processes.” The training video reinforces that AP’s role extends beyond transactions to strategic contributions, including supplier trust and process improvement.
COSO identifies each of the following elements as necessary for an effective control environment, EXCEPT:
Internal controls are monitored and evaluated
Staff work in self-directed teams
Information is distributed in a timely way
People know their responsibilities and limits of authority
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program details the COSO framework’s Control Environment component, which establishes the foundation for effective internal controls. Key elements include clear roles and responsibilities, timely information distribution, and ongoing monitoring of controls. However,staff working in self-directed teamsis not a COSO requirement, as the framework focuses on structure and accountability rather than specific team management styles.
Option A (Internal controls are monitored and evaluated): This aligns with COSO’s Monitoring Activities component but also supports the Control Environment by ensuring controls are enforced. It is a necessary element.
Option B (Staff work in self-directed teams): COSO does not mandate self-directed teams. While teamwork may be beneficial, the Control Environment emphasizes defined roles and oversight, not specific team structures. This is the correct answer.
Option C (Information is distributed in a timely way): This supports the Control Environment by ensuring employees have the information needed to perform their duties, aligning with COSO’s Information and Communication component. It is a necessary element.
Option D (People know their responsibilities and limits of authority): This is a core element of the Control Environment, ensuring clear accountability and authority structures. It is a necessary element.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsexplains, “The COSO Control Environment requires clear responsibilities, timely information flow, and ongoing monitoring to establish effective controls.” It lists elements like “defined roles and authority limits” and “effective communication” but does not mention self-directed teams as a requirement. The training video emphasizes COSO’s focus on accountability and structure, noting that team configurations are organizational choices, not COSO mandates.
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) has not gained more widespread use, particularly by small and medium-size companies, in part because of:
Government regulations
Staff resistance
Costly technology
Security concerns
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) enables the automated exchange of business documents, such as invoices and purchase orders, between trading partners. While EDI offers efficiency, its adoption by small and medium-sized companies is limited primarily due tocostly technology, including high implementation and maintenance costs for hardware, software, and integration. Government regulations (Option A), staff resistance (Option B), and security concerns (Option D) may pose challenges, but the primary barrier is cost.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “EDI adoption is hindered for small and medium-sized businesses due to the high costs of implementing and maintaining EDI systems, including software and integration expenses.” This directly supports Option C as the primary reason for limited EDI use.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including technologies like EDI. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” acknowledges barriers to technology adoption, with cost being a significant factor for smaller organizations.
In double-entry accounting, which of the following pairs of accounting entries are made when an invoice has been paid?
Credit cash and debit the asset account
Debit the expense and credit the AP liability account
Debit cash (asset) and credit the AP liability account
Credit cash and debit the AP liability account
In thePaymentsandInvoicestopics of the IOFM APS Certification Program, double-entry accounting principles are covered to ensure AP professionals understand how transactions are recorded. When an invoice is paid, the organization settles an accounts payable (AP) liability, which is a balance sheet account representing money owed to vendors. The payment typically involves a cash outflow (or reduction in a bank account) and a corresponding reduction in the AP liability.
In double-entry accounting, every transaction affects at least two accounts, with debits equaling credits. The process of paying an invoice involves:
When the invoice isreceived, the AP department records the liability by debiting an expense account (or asset, depending on the purchase) and crediting the AP liability account. This step is not the focus of the question.
When the invoice ispaid, the AP liability is reduced, and cash is reduced. The correct journal entry is:
Debit Accounts Payable (AP liability): This reduces the liability, as the organization no longer owes the vendor.
Credit Cash: This reflects the outflow of cash used to settle the invoice.
Option A (Credit cash and debit the asset account): This is incorrect because paying an invoice does not typically involve debiting a generic “asset account.” The payment reduces the AP liability, not another asset account (unless the invoice was for an asset purchase, which is not specified). Additionally, crediting cash is correct, but the pairing is wrong.
Option B (Debit the expense and credit the AP liability account): This describes the journal entry when an invoice isreceived, not when it is paid. When recording an invoice, the expense (or asset) is debited, and the AP liability is credited. This option is incorrect for the payment stage.
Option C (Debit cash (asset) and credit the AP liability account): This is incorrect because debiting cash would imply an increase in the cash account, which does not occur when paying an invoice (cash decreases). The direction of the cash entry is reversed.
Option D (Credit cash and debit the AP liability account): This is the correct journal entry for paying an invoice. Debiting the AP liability reduces the amount owed to the vendor, and crediting cash reflects the payment made (cash decreases). This aligns with standard double-entry accounting principles.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The IOFM APS e-textbook and training video under thePaymentssection cover double-entry accounting for AP transactions. The curriculum explains that “when an invoice is paid, the accounts payable liability account is debited to reduce the obligation, and the cash account is credited to reflect the payment outflow.” This is reinforced in the practice quizzes, which test understanding of journal entries for invoice payments. The APS program also references best practices for cash management and payment processing, emphasizing accurate accounting to maintain financial integrity.
What is an efficient way to handle vendor contact information in the VMF that is likely to change frequently?
Conduct a thorough audit of vendor names and addresses semiannually and make all changes discovered
Include only the vendor web address in the VMF and check online to find the right contact as needed
Assign an individual to review the contact information for these vendors on a weekly basis
Include in the vendor contract that you must be notified of any personnel changes in writing
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program addresses managing dynamic vendor data, such as contact information, which can change frequently. An efficient approach is toinclude a contractual requirementfor vendors to notify the organization in writing of personnel or contact changes, ensuring the VMF remains accurate without excessive manual effort.
Option A (Conduct a thorough audit semiannually): Inefficient, as semiannual audits are too infrequent for frequently changing data and resource-intensive.
Option B (Include only the vendor web address): Inefficient and risky, as websites may not provide current contact details, and manual checks are time-consuming.
Option C (Assign an individual to review weekly): Inefficient, as weekly reviews are labor-intensive and impractical for large vendor bases.
Option D (Include in the vendor contract notification of personnel changes): Correct. Contractual notification shifts responsibility to vendors, ensuring timely updates with minimal organizational effort.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “To manage frequently changing contact information, include contractual terms requiring vendors to notify the organization of changes in writing, reducing manual updates.” The training video notes, “Efficient VMF management leverages vendor contracts to ensure timely contact updates, avoiding labor-intensive audits.”
The well-publicized business scandals that occurred in the early 2000s, particularly in the U.S., resulted in legislation that protects which class of employees?
Executives
Whistleblowers
Auditors
Hourly employees
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), enacted in response to corporate scandals like Enron and WorldCom in the early 2000s. A key provision of SOX is the protection ofwhistleblowers—employees who report fraudulent or illegal activities within their organization. Section 806 of SOX safeguards whistleblowers from retaliation, such as termination or discrimination, encouraging them to expose financial misconduct.
Option A (Executives): SOX holds executives accountable (e.g., through CEO/CFO certifications under Section 302), but it does not specifically protect them. This option is incorrect.
Option B (Whistleblowers): Correct. SOX’s whistleblower protections ensure employees who report fraud or violations are shielded from retaliation, addressing the chilling effect seen in scandals like Enron.
Option C (Auditors): While SOX strengthens auditor independence (e.g., via the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board), it does not classify auditors as a protected employee class. This option is incorrect.
Option D (Hourly employees): SOX protections apply to all employees who report misconduct, not specifically hourly employees. Whistleblowers, regardless of role, are the protected class. This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, enacted after scandals like Enron, includes Section 806 to protect whistleblowers from retaliation when reporting financial misconduct.” The training video emphasizes SOX’s role in encouraging transparency, noting that “whistleblower protections ensure employees can safely report violations, strengthening internal controls.”
Procurement card (P-card) issuers offer rebates according to:
Volume of spend
Number of individual transactions
Frequency of use
Quantity of cards issued
Procurement cards (P-cards) are corporate credit cards used for business purchases, and issuers often offer rebates or incentives to encourage their use. These rebates are typically based on the volume of spend, meaning the total dollar amount charged to the P-card over a specified period. This incentivizes organizations to consolidate more purchases on the card, benefiting both the issuer (through transaction fees) and the organization (through rebates).
The web source from Corcentric states: “P-card issuers commonly offer rebates based on the total volume of spend, encouraging organizations to increase card usage for eligible purchases.” This confirms that rebates are tied to the dollar amount spent (Option A), not the number of transactions (Option B), frequency of use (Option C), or number of cards issued (Option D).
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including P-card programs and their benefits. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the industry standard that rebates are based on spend volume, as this drives cost savings and program efficiency.
Which of the following are among the elements that the IRS considers in defining a T&E accountable plan?
I only (Expense substantiation)
I, II, and III (Expense substantiation; Business connection requirement; Return of unused cash advances on a timely basis)
II only (Business connection requirement)
I and III only (Expense substantiation; Return of unused cash advances on a timely basis)
An accountable plan, as defined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), is a reimbursement or allowance arrangement for business expenses, including Travel and Entertainment (T&E), that meets three specific requirements to avoid being treated as taxable income: (1)Expense substantiation, where employees must provide documented evidence (e.g., receipts) for expenses; (2)Business connection requirement, meaning expenses must be incurred in connection with performing services for the employer; and (3)Return of unused cash advances on a timely basis, ensuring any excess advances are returned within a reasonable period (typically 120 days). All three elements (Options I, II, and III) are required for a T&E accountable plan.
The web source from the IRS states: “An accountable plan must meet three requirements: 1) Employees must have paid or incurred expenses while performing services as an employee (business connection); 2) Employees must adequately account for these expenses within areasonable period (substantiation); and 3) Employees must return any excess allowance or advance within a reasonable period.” This directly supports Option B, as all three elements are included in the IRS definition.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including IRS regulations for T&E accountable plans. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” and compliance with federal tax laws emphasizes the three IRS requirements, confirming that all three elements are essential.
Which U.S. government organization publishes “per diem” travel guidelines?
Federal Reserve Board
Department of Treasury
Department of Commerce
General Services Administration
TheGeneral Services Administration (GSA)is the U.S. government organization responsible for publishing per diem travel guidelines, which establish standard rates for lodging, meals, and incidental expenses for federal employees traveling on official business. These rates are widely used by organizations to set T&E policies for allowable travel expenses.
The web source from the GSA states: “The General Services Administration (GSA) establishes per diem rates for federal travel, providing guidelines for lodging, meals, and incidental expenses.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are incorrect:
Federal Reserve Board (A)regulates monetary policy, not travel guidelines.
Department of Treasury (B)oversees tax and financial policy, not per diem rates.
Department of Commerce (C)focuses on economic and trade issues.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” including the use of per diem rates for expense management. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with referencing GSA per diem guidelines for T&E compliance.
IRS proposed penalties for missing or incorrect tax IDs on 1099 filings can be abated due to ‘reasonable cause,’ which can include each of the following, EXCEPT:
Proof of a successful TIN match prior to the date of assessment
Documentation showing the error rate to be less than 5% of total 1099s
The organization’s plan for improving the accuracy of future reporting
Steps the organization has taken in an attempt to obtain the correct payee information
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers IRS penalties for 1099 filings and the criteria for penalty abatement under ‘reasonable cause.’ Reasonable cause can be established by demonstrating due diligence, such as obtaining a TIN match, documenting efforts to collect correct payee information, or outlining plans to improve future reporting. However,an error rate less than 5%is not a recognized IRS criterion for reasonable cause, as the IRS focuses on intent and effort, not specific error thresholds.
Option A (Proof of a successful TIN match prior to the date of assessment): Valid. A TIN match with the IRS verifies payee information, demonstrating due diligence, which supports reasonable cause for abatement.
Option B (Documentation showing the error rate to be less than 5% of total 1099s): Not valid. The IRS does not specify a percentage threshold (e.g., 5%) for penalty abatement. Reasonable cause depends on actions taken, not error rates. Correct answer.
Option C (The organization’s plan for improving the accuracy of future reporting): Valid. A documented plan to enhance compliance (e.g., improved TIN collection processes) shows intent to correct issues, supporting reasonable cause.
Option D (Steps the organization has taken in an attempt to obtain the correct payee information): Valid. Documenting efforts like requesting W-9 forms or sending B Notices demonstrates due diligence, a key factor for reasonable cause.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “IRS penalties for incorrect 1099 filings can be abated for reasonable cause, including proof of TIN matching, efforts to obtain correct payee data, and plans for future compliance.” TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Complianceclarifies, “Reasonable cause does not include specific error rate thresholds like 5%; instead, it focuses on documented due diligence.” The training video reinforces this, noting that “TIN matches and W-9 solicitations are key to penalty abatement.”
What is one benefit of entering a commodity code in a user-defined field when setting up a newvendor?
It prevents a duplicate vendor from being entered
It indicates which team member created the new record
It automatically generates a price comparison to other similar vendors
It enables procurement to use the data for spend analysis
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of structured data in the vendor master file (VMF) to support organizational processes. Entering acommodity code(a standardized code classifying goods or services) in a user-defined field allows procurement to categorize vendor offerings, enablingspend analysisto identify spending patterns, negotiate better terms, and optimize supplier selection.
Option A (It prevents a duplicate vendor from being entered): Incorrect. Commodity codes classify goods/services, not vendor identities; duplicate prevention relies on TIN or name checks.
Option B (It indicates which team member created the new record): Incorrect. Commodity codes are unrelated to record creation metadata, which is tracked separately.
Option C (It automatically generates a price comparison to other similar vendors): Incorrect. Commodity codes enable categorization but do not automatically generate price comparisons; additional tools are needed.
Option D (It enables procurement to use the data for spend analysis): Correct. Commodity codes allow procurement to group vendors by product/service type, facilitating spend analysis and strategic sourcing.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Entering commodity codes in the vendor master file enables procurement to perform spend analysis by categorizing vendor goods and services.” The training video notes, “Commodity codes support procurement’s ability to analyze spending patterns, a key benefit of structured VMF data.”
In the U.S., what type of information is HIPAA designed to protect?
Corporate whistleblower identities
External auditor findings
Private medical records
Electronic banking information
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers key U.S. regulations, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).Enacted in 1996, HIPAA is designed to protect the privacy and security ofprivate medical records, ensuring that protected health information (PHI) is safeguarded by healthcare providers, insurers, and related entities, including AP departments handling medical-related payments.
Option A (Corporate whistleblower identities): Incorrect. Whistleblower protections are covered under laws like the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, not HIPAA.
Option B (External auditor findings): Incorrect. Auditor findings are related to financial or operational audits, not protected by HIPAA.
Option C (Private medical records): Correct. HIPAA establishes standards to protect PHI, such as patient health records, from unauthorized disclosure.
Option D (Electronic banking information): Incorrect. Banking information is protected under laws like the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, not HIPAA.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “HIPAA protects private medical records, ensuring the confidentiality of protected health information (PHI) in transactions involving healthcare providers.” The training video mentions HIPAA in the context of AP compliance, noting that AP staff handling medical vendor payments must ensure PHI is secure.
To minimize fraud risk before adding a new vendor to the master vendor file, you should do which of the following? I. Check the vendor against government sanction lists; II. See if the vendor’s address matches any of the organization’s locations; III. Verify the vendor’s business registration.
I only
I, II, and III
II only
I and II only
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes robust vendor validation to minimize fraud risk. Key practices include checking sanction lists, verifying addresses against internal locations to detect insider fraud, and confirming business registration to ensure legitimacy. All three actions (I, II, III) are standard fraud prevention measures.
Item I (Check the vendor against government sanction lists): Essential to ensure compliance with regulations (e.g., OFAC) and avoid payments to sanctioned entities.
Item II (See if the vendor’s address matches any of the organization’s locations): Critical to detect potential insider fraud, where employees create fake vendors using company addresses.
Item III (Verify the vendor’s business registration): Necessary to confirm the vendor is a legitimate, registered business, reducing the risk of payments to fraudulent entities.
Option A (I only): Incorrect, as Items II and III are also essential.
Option B (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three are key fraud prevention practices.
Option C (II only): Incorrect, as Items I and III are also essential.
Option D (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also essential.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “To minimize fraud, verify new vendors by checking sanction lists, ensuring addresses don’t match internal locations, and confirming business registration.” The training video emphasizes, “Sanction checks, address verification, and business registration are critical to prevent fraudulent vendor setups.”
Which of the following are reasons an employee should keep and submit T&E receipts, even if using a corporate travel card?
I, II, and III (There may be additional expenses for items paid out-of-pocket; Paper receipts are more easily handled and archived than electronic ones; The card information may not include the sufficient level of detail needed for approval)
I and III only (There may be additional expenses for items paid out-of-pocket; The card information may not include the sufficient level of detail needed for approval)
I and II only (There may be additional expenses for items paid out-of-pocket; Paper receipts are more easily handled and archived than electronic ones)
II and III only (Paper receipts are more easily handled and archived than electronic ones; The card information may not include the sufficient level of detail needed for approval)
Even when using a corporate travel card, employees must keep and submit T&E receipts for several reasons. First, there may be additional out-of-pocket expenses (e.g., tips, small cash purchases) not charged to the card, requiring receipts for reimbursement (Option I). Second, corporate card statements often lack sufficient detail (e.g., itemized expenses or business purpose), necessitating receipts to meet approval and compliance requirements (Option III). However, paper receipts are not inherently easier to handle or archive than electronic ones (Option II), as modern T&E systems favor digital receipt management for efficiency and accessibility.
The web source from Esker states: “Employees must submit receipts for T&E expenses, even with corporate cards, to account for out-of-pocket expenses and to provide detailed documentation for approval, as card statements may lack itemized details.” The NetSuite source adds: “Digital receipt management is preferred over paper receipts, as it simplifies archiving and retrieval.” This supports Options I and III, while refuting Option II, as paper receipts are less efficient in modern systems.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing proper documentation and compliance in expense reporting. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the need for receipts to document out-of-pocket expenses and provide detailed approval data, but not for paper-based archiving.
A copy of front and back of the original check, which is legally the same as the original check, is termed a substitute check or:
An electronic conversion order
A surrogate financial instrument
A negotiated bank draft
An image replacement document
A substitute check, created under the Check Clearing for the 21st Century Act (Check 21), is a paper reproduction of the front and back of an original check, legally equivalent to the original for processing purposes. It is also known as animage replacement document (IRD), as it replaces the original check with a digital image-based substitute. This facilitates faster check clearing through electronic processing.
The web source from NetSuite states: “A substitute check, also known as an image replacement document (IRD), is a paper copy of the front and back of a check, legally equivalent to the original, created under Check 21.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are incorrect:
Electronic conversion order (A)is not a recognized term.
Surrogate financial instrument (B)is not a standard term for substitute checks.
Negotiated bank draft (C)refers to a different financial instrument.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including check processing and Check 21 regulations. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with the definition of a substitute check as an image replacement document.
Assigning a user name and password is one method of:
Optical character recognition
Robotic process automation
Data authentication
Security lockdown
Assigning a user name and password is a method ofdata authentication, which verifies the identity of users accessing systems or data to ensure only authorized individuals can perform actions. This is a fundamental security control in accounts payable to protect sensitive financial information. Optical character recognition (Option A) is used for extracting data from documents, robotic process automation (Option B) automates repetitive tasks, and security lockdown (Option D) refers to broader measures like restricting system access during a breach, not specifically user authentication.
The web source from Esker states: “Data authentication, such as assigning user names and passwords, ensures that only authorized personnel can access sensitive AP systems and data.” This directly supports Option C.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including security measures like authentication to protect AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with using user names and passwords as a standard authentication method.
Which of the following are potential red flags for T&E expenses that fall outside of policy?
II and III only (Cab fares; Weekend stays)
I only (Charges for airline upgrades)
I and III only (Charges for airline upgrades; Weekend stays)
II only (Cab fares)
Potential red flags for T&E expenses that fall outside of company policy includecharges for airline upgrades(Option I), which may indicate unauthorized luxury spending, andweekend stays(Option III), which could suggest personal travel disguised as business-related. These expenses often require additional scrutiny to ensure compliance with T&E policies.Cab fares(Option II) are typically routine and not inherently a red flag unless excessive or unsupported, making them less likely to be a policy violation compared to upgrades or weekend stays.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “Red flags in T&E expenses include charges for airline upgrades, which may violate policy on allowable travel classes, and weekend stays, which could indicate personal travel.” This supports Options I and III. Cab fares are noted as common expenses that require receipts but are not typically flagged unless unusual, per the Esker source: “Routine expenses like cab fares are less likely to be red flags compared to upgrades or extended stays.”
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” emphasizing fraud detection and policy compliance. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with identifying airline upgrades and weekend stays as potential red flags.
What is blockchain?
A distributed ledger system
A random password generator
An internal audit methodology
An accounts payable collaborative
Blockchain is a decentralized, distributed ledger system that records transactions across multiple computers in a secure, transparent, and tamper-resistant manner. In accounts payable, blockchain can enhance processes like invoice verification and payment tracking by providing a trusted, immutable record. The other options are incorrect: a random password generator (Option B) is unrelated to blockchain, an internal audit methodology (Option C) refers to audit processes, and an accounts payable collaborative (Option D) is not a defined term.
The web source from NetSuite explains: “Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology that records transactions in a secure, decentralized manner, offering potential applications in accounts payable for secure payment processing and invoice tracking.” This directly supports Option A.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including emerging technologies like blockchain. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” includes understanding technologies that enhance AP efficiency and security, confirming blockchain as a distributed ledger system.
Fixed assets include which of the following? I. Accounts receivable; II. Furniture and fixtures; III. Inventory.
I, II, and III
I and II only
II only
I and III only
ThePaymentstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding the types of accounts involved in AP transactions, such as assets, liabilities, and expenses. Fixed assets are long-term, tangible assets used in business operations, such as furniture and fixtures, which are not intended for sale. Accounts receivable and inventory, however, are not fixed assets; they are current assets, as they are expected to be converted to cash within a year.
Item I (Accounts receivable): Accounts receivable represent money owed to the organization by customers for goods or services sold. They are classified ascurrent assets, not fixed assets, because they are short-term and liquid. This item is not a fixed asset.
Item II (Furniture and fixtures): Furniture and fixtures (e.g., desks, chairs, office equipment) are tangible, long-term assets used in business operations. They are classified asfixed assetsbecause they have a useful life exceeding one year and are not intended for sale. This item is a fixed asset.
Item III (Inventory): Inventory consists of goods held for sale or use in production. It is classified as acurrent assetbecause it is expected to be sold or used within a year. This item is not a fixed asset.
Option A (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as only II is a fixed asset; I and III are current assets.
Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as I (accounts receivable) is not a fixed asset.
Option C (II only): Correct, as furniture and fixtures (II) are the only fixed asset among the options.
Option D (I and III only): Incorrect, as neither I (accounts receivable) nor III (inventory) are fixed assets.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underPaymentscovers basic accounting principles, including the classification of assets. It defines fixed assets as “tangible assets with a useful life of more than one year, such as furniture, fixtures, and equipment, used in business operations.” The text distinguishes fixed assets from current assets like accounts receivable and inventory, which are “expected to be converted to cash or used within a year.” The training video reinforces this by discussing how AP processes payments for fixed assets (e.g., capital expenditures) versus current assets (e.g., inventory purchases).
Which of the following is the purpose of FATCA?
To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.
To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent
To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.
To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA), enacted in 2010 to combat tax evasion by U.S. taxpayers using foreign accounts. FATCA requires foreign financial institutions (FFIs) to report U.S. account holders’ information to the IRS, making it harder for individuals and organizations to hide income offshore and avoid U.S. taxes.
Option A (To ensure the privacy of individuals or organizations that bank outside of the U.S.): Incorrect. FATCA reduces privacy by requiring FFIs to report account details to the IRS, not protect it.
Option B (To make the rules regarding reporting payments made to U.S. persons and non-U.S. persons more consistent): Incorrect. FATCA focuses on reporting foreign accounts of U.S. taxpayers, not harmonizing payment reporting rules for U.S. and non-U.S. persons.
Option C (To make it more difficult for individuals or organizations to avoid paying taxes by banking outside of the U.S.): Correct. FATCA’s primary purpose is to prevent tax evasion by requiring FFIs and certain non-financial foreign entities to report U.S. account holders’ financial information, ensuring taxable income is reported.
Option D (To respond to attempts by foreign governments to capture taxes on activities of U.S. persons in their countries): Incorrect. FATCA addresses U.S. tax compliance, not foreign governments’ tax policies.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “FATCA was enacted to combat tax evasion by requiring foreign financial institutions to report U.S. account holders’ information, making it difficult to avoid taxes through offshore accounts.” TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliance, a recommended IOFM resource, explains, “FATCA ensures compliance by imposing withholding on payments to non-compliant FFIs, targeting U.S. taxpayers hiding income abroad.” The training video reinforces this, noting FATCA’s role in “closing loopholes for offshore tax evasion.”
All of the following are examples of key performance indicators (KPIs) EXCEPT:
Invoices paid on time
Positive pay
Cost per invoice
Lost discounts
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding key performance indicators (KPIs) to measure AP department performance. KPIs are metrics that track efficiency, accuracy, and cost-effectiveness, such as invoices paid on time, cost per invoice, and lost discounts.Positive pay, however, is a fraud prevention tool, not a performance metric.
Option A (Invoices paid on time): This is a KPI, measuring the percentage of invoices paid by their due date, reflecting AP efficiency and vendor relationship management.
Option B (Positive pay): Positive pay is a banking service that matches issued checks against presented checks to prevent fraud. It is a control mechanism, not a KPI, as it does not measure performance. This is the correct answer.
Option C (Cost per invoice): This is a KPI, calculating the average cost to process an invoice, used to assess operational efficiency.
Option D (Lost discounts): This is a KPI, tracking missed early payment discounts, which indicates opportunities for cost savings.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlslists common AP KPIs, including “percentage of invoices paid on time, cost per invoice, and lost early payment discounts,” as metrics to evaluate performance. It describes positive pay as “a fraud prevention tool under internal controls, not a performance indicator.” The training video reinforces this by discussing KPIs for benchmarking and positive pay as a separate control mechanism.
TESTED 02 Aug 2025