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4A0-C02 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following about BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The SoO attribute can be used to uniquely identify the site from which a PE learns routes.

B.

Before a PE redistributes a VPN-IPv4 route, it can assign an SoO attribute to the route.

C.

The SoO attribute can be used to prevent loops from a single site with multiple CE-PE connections.

D.

The SoO attribute can be used as matching criteria when redistributing routes from the CE to the PE.

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Questions 5

Which of the following about Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

CSC does not allow a customer carrier to offer Layer 2 services to its end customers.

B.

A CSC VPRN is configured on the network provider's CSC-PE routers.

C.

CSC eliminates the need for customer carriers to build and maintain their own MPLS backbone.

D.

The network provider provides an MPLS VPN backbone to the customer carrier.

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Questions 6

In a Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which of the following is a benefit to the network provider?

Options:

A.

No need to build and maintain its own backbone.

B.

The solution scales as the number of serviced customer carriers increases.

C.

The solution scales as the number of VPNs offered by the customer carriers increases.

D.

The ability to manage end-customer services.

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Questions 7

In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address space between two customers? Choose the best answer.

Options:

A.

There will be increased memory usage on the PE

B.

There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE

C.

The CE will reject the overlapping prefix

D.

The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different

E.

There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN

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Questions 8

A packet is to be encapsulated inside an MPLS tunnel which consists of two MPLS headers at the first network egress. Which of the MPLS EXP fields will be marked?

Options:

A.

The EXP field in the bottom MPLS header will be marked.

B.

The EXP field in both the top and bottom MPLS headers will be marked.

C.

For Layer 2 services, the top MPLS header will be marked; for Layer 3 services, the bottom MPLS header will be marked.

D.

The EXP field in the top MPLS header will be marked.

E.

Neither the top nor the bottom EXP field will be marked since EXP remarking can only be done on the network ingress.

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Questions 9

Click the exhibit button below. A network operator has configured a network-queue policy to map forwarding classes to queues, as shown in the exhibit below. Based on the default scheduling behavior of the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, in which order will packets be serviced?

Options:

A.

All in-profile packets in round-robin, then all out-of-profile packets in biased round-robin.

B.

In-profile EF packets, then in-profile H2 packets, then in-profile AF packets, then out-of-profile EF packets, then out-of-profile H2 and AF packets, and then out-of-profile BE packets.

C.

In-profile EF, H2 and AF packets, then out-of-profile H2, AF and BE packets in biased round-robin.

D.

In-profile EF packets, then in-profile H2 and AF packets, then out-of-profile H2, AF and BE packets in biased round-robin.

E.

In-profile EF and H2 packets, then in-profile AF packets, then out-of-profile H2, AF and BE packets in biased round-robin.

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Questions 10

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, how many queues per FC are available for multipoint traffic within a VPLS on service ingress?

Options:

A.

64

B.

8

C.

3

D.

16

E.

1

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Questions 11

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is advertising prefix 192.168.1.0/27 with community "no-export. Which routers will receive an update for that prefix?

Options:

A.

Router R2 only.

B.

Routers R2 and R3 only.

C.

Routers R2, R3 and R4 only.

D.

Routers R2, R3, R4and R5.

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Questions 12

A physical port has three associated buffer pools. Which of the following buffer pool combinations is associated to a physical port?

Options:

A.

Access ingress, access egress, network egress

B.

Access ingress, network ingress, network egress

C.

Port ingress, port egress, shared bi-directional

D.

Port ingress, port egress, network egress

E.

Port ingress, network ingress, network egress

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Questions 13

Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?

Options:

A.

Unlike VPLS. VPWS appears as a multi-hop network to the customers.

B.

Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN.

C.

Unlike VPWS, VPLS allows customers to view the network as a routed network.

D.

Unlike VPWS, VPLS is a service where customer MAC addresses are learned.

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Questions 14

At which points can traffic be marked or remarked on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SAP-ingress only

B.

SAP-egress only

C.

SAP-ingress and SAP-egress

D.

Network ingress

E.

Network egress

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Questions 15

Which of the following are major components of QoS functionality on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Microflow reservations using RSVP

B.

DSCP to EXP translation

C.

Traffic classification

D.

Automatic profiling and policy configuration

E.

Buffer memory management

F.

Traffic scheduling

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements BEST describes the IntServ model?

Options:

A.

Has the ability to distinguish traffic in 32 different ways.

B.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create microflows through a network.

C.

Has the ability to manually configure foiwarding classes through a network.

D.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create macroflows through a network.

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Questions 17

When using an egress port scheduler, on which scheduling loop are orphaned queues serviced?

Options:

A.

Level 8 within CIR.

B.

Level 8 between CIR and PIR.

C.

Level 8, once all PIR is serviced.

D.

Level 1 within CIR.

E.

Level 1 between CIR and PIR.

F.

Level 1, once all PIR is serviced.

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Questions 18

Which of the following statements about an autonomous system is FALSE?

Options:

A.

An AS is a set of routers under a single technical administration.

B.

An AS efficiently advertises all IGP known routes to other ASs.

C.

An AS presents a consistent routing policy to other autonomous systems.

D.

An AS has a 2-byte or 4-byte AS number assigned.

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Questions 19

Click the exhibit button below.

At router PE1, customer packets are arriving tagged with a dotlp value of 6 and marked with a DSCP value of EF.

Based on the configuration shown below for a VPLS service, what will be the DSCP and EXP marking for the packet egressing the network port on this PE router? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.

The DSCP value will be set to af23.

C.

The DSCP value will remain as ef.

D.

The EXP value, in the MPLS headers, will be set to 4.

E.

The EXP value, in the MPLS headers, will be set to 3.

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Questions 20

Which of the following protocols are used for service label signaling?

Options:

A.

Link LDP or MP-BGP

B.

Link LDP or RSVP-TE

C.

T-LDP or MP-BGP

D.

T-LDP or RSVP-TE

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The primary contributors to latency are distance, scheduling, and congestion.

B.

The weighted round robin scheduling algorithm will result in more delay for high priority traffic than the regular round robin algorithm.

C.

The round robin scheduling algorithm will result in less jitter for low priority traffic than a strict priority scheduler.

D.

Packet loss can be reduced by decreasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

E.

Latency can be reduced by increasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

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Questions 22

Router R1, in AS 65540, has the export policy shown below. It advertises an aggregate route to eBGP peer router R2 in 65550. What is the AS Path of the aggregate route received by router R2?

Options:

A.

65540

B.

65540 1

C.

65540 65540

D.

65550 65540

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements regarding BGP route selection is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Lower local preference is preferred over higher local preference.

B.

Higher MED is preferred over lower MED.

C.

Higher origin code is preferred over lower origin code.

D.

Lower BGP router ID is preferred over higher BGP router ID.

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Questions 24

MAC explosion is best described as a large amount of MAC addresses being withdrawn and relearned?

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 25

Which of the following protocols are supported by the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for the creation of transport tunnels within an autonomous system?

Options:

A.

MP-BGP, LDP, RSVP-TE

B.

LDP, RSVP-TE, GRE

C.

MP-BGP, RSVP-TE, GRE

D.

MP-BGP, LDP

E.

MP-BGP only

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Questions 26

Which of the following statements regarding the default scheduler in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

There are a maximum of 8 levels of priority serviced using a round-robin algorithm.

B.

The default scheduler will spend an equal amount of time in each queue, as long as there is traffic present

C.

The H1 internal forwarding class will receive its CIR before AF traffic.

D.

Orphaned queues will be scheduled out of the BE queue.

E.

A queue servicing EF and AF traffic will require explicit configuration to set the queue to expedited.

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Questions 27

Click the exhibit button below. A service provider has applied the SAP-ingress policy configuration below on his customer's SAP. The service provider notices that all of the customer's traffic is being dropped at the SAP-ingress. Which of the following actions can resolve the problem, if applied on its own? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Set the CIR of queue 3 to a non-zero value corresponding to the customer's expected bandwidth requirements.

B.

Set queue 3 to use priority mode.

C.

Set the traffic classification of packets to in-profile.

D.

Set the high-priority-only value to 0.

E.

Map AF traffic to queue 1

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Questions 28

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is a BGP/MPLS service provider. Which of the following describes the routes present in PE1's global routing table?

Options:

A.

The system address of PE2 is present. The system addresses of CSC-PE1 and CSC-PE2 are not present.

B.

The system addresses of PE2, CSC-PE1 and CSC-PE2 are all present.

C.

The system address of CSC-CE1, the route 192.168.10.1, and the route 192.168.20.1 are all present.

D.

The system address of PE2 and the route 192.168.20.1 are present.

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Questions 29

In a VPRN, which of the following are supported as PE-CE routing methods on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose four).

Options:

A.

Static

B.

RIP

C.

OSPF

D.

IS-IS

E.

MP-BGP

F.

BGP

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Questions 30

Click the exhibit button below. A network operator has configured the SAP-ingress policy below. Ping traffic is expected in queue 3. However, the network operator notices that all traffic is placed in queue 1. What is the most probable reason for this?

Options:

A.

The default forwarding class for all traffic, including ICMP, is BE, which is placed in queue 1.

B.

The SAP has been shut down.

C.

The IP-match criteria has been misconfigured for ICMP traffic.

D.

Queue 3 has no rate or CIR configured and thus cannot hold any packets.

E.

The SAP-ingress policy has not been applied to the SAP.

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements about standalone pokers and CFHP policers is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A standalone policer has no parent arbiter, while a CFHP pohlicer has a parent arbiter.

B.

A standalone policer has a fixed PIR rate, while a CFHP poker's PIR rate can be dynamically adjusted by its parent arbiter.

C.

Both standalone and CFHP policers use the FIR bucket to gain access to their fair share of the available bandwidth.

D.

Both standalone and CFHP policers use a policer output queue to store packets before they are forwarded.

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Questions 32

Which of the following are examples of metrics for QoS?

Options:

A.

Signal degradation, attenuation, line loss

B.

Latency, FIFO, WRED

C.

Delay, jitter, packet loss

D.

SNR, queue depth, latency

E.

Attenuation, dispersion, latency

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Questions 33

For a Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN where the customer carrier is a BGP/MPLS VPN Service Provider (SP), which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The customer carrier network can be a pure IP network.

B.

The customer carrier provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 services to its end-customers.

C.

A single CSC VPRN is configured on the network provider to support all services offered by the customer carrier.

D.

In the case where the customer carrier offers VPRN services, the model is referred to as hierarchical VPRN.

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Questions 34

A BGP router has loopback interfaces 192.168.1.1/27 and 192.168.2.1/27 advertised into BGP using the following export policy. The "aggregate 192.168.0.0/16" command is executed. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

A single route for 192.168.0.0/16 is advertised.

B.

BGP routes 192.168.1.0/27, 192.168.2.0/27, and 192.168.0.0/16 are advertised.

C.

BGP routes 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.2.0/27 are advertised, and 192.168.0.0/16 appears as a "Blackhole" route in the route table only.

D.

The given export policy is invalid.

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Questions 35

Which of the following about the configuration of BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each PE must implement a policy to apply a unique SoO attribute to the set of routes received from each customer site.

B.

A different BGP extended community is used on each PE that connects to a single site.

C.

An import policy on the PE rejects a route if the attached SoO matches the configured value.

D.

Import and export policies are applied on the PEs under the global BGP context.

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements about a Management VPLS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Operates in transparent mode.

B.

Carries RSTP BPDUs only.

C.

Assigns RSTP state to other VPLS services.

D.

Allows load balancing among multiple management VPLS instances.

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Questions 37

Click the exhibit.

The CLI command "remove-private" is configured on PE1 to eliminate BGP loops in the VPRN. For the displayed route, what is the value of the AS-Path field?

Options:

A.

64496 64512

B.

64512

C.

64496

D.

64512 64496

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Questions 38

Which of the following statements BEST describes an MBS parameter?

Options:

A.

It specifies the maximum rate at which a queue can be serviced.

B.

It specifies the maximum depth of a queue beyond which packets will be dropped.

C.

It specifies the portion of a queue that is taken from the reserved buffer pool.

D.

It specifies the threshold beyond which only in-profile packets will be queued.

E.

It specifies the peak bandwidth that can be attained by the incoming traffic.

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Questions 39

A service provider core consists of 6 PE and 4 P routers. Assuming route reflection is not used, how many internal BGP sessions are required in the service provider network for a correct operation of VPRN services?

Options:

A.

1

B.

5

C.

15

D.

30

E.

45

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Questions 40

Click the exhibit.

Router R6 is a route reflector with clients R1, R2 and R5. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R1, R2 and R5. How many routes for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 will router R6 receive?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

None

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Questions 41

In the context of hierarchical scheduling, a scheduler is configured with a CIR weight of 0. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth before all other children at the same level have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

B.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth after all other children at the same level have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

C.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth after all other children at all levels have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

D.

The scheduler will not be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth.

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Questions 42

Which of the following is uniquely identified by the VPLS-ID in an LDP VPLS using Auto-Discovery^*

Options:

A.

VPLS switch identifier.

B.

VPLS service identifier.

C.

VPLS router identifier to all PEs.

D.

A locally unique VPLS service identifier.

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Questions 43

Click the exhibit button below. Given the scheduler-policy (below), how much bandwidth can the best-effort traffic receive (PIR and CIR) when the ingress rate of each queue is 10Mbps?

Options:

A.

PIR = 4Mbps. CIR = 1Mbps

B.

PIR = 1Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10Mbps, CIR = 1Mbps

D.

PIR = 5Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

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Questions 44

A default network policy is applied to all router interfaces associated with network ports.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 45

Which of the following rate-limiting approaches are used on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Shapeless policing at SAP-ingress only.

B.

Shapeless policing at SAP-ingress and egress.

C.

Biased round robin queuing at ingress only.

D.

Soft shaping at all network interfaces.

E.

Soft shaping at network ingress only.

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Questions 46

Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1p? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 2 header,

B.

802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 3 header.

C.

802.1p specifies 64 different priority levels.

D.

802.1p uses a field in the 802.1Q header.

E.

802.1p uses a field in the Layer 3 IP header

F.

802.1p defines a 3-bit Class of Service field.

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Questions 47

How many queues are available for use on service egress within a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

1 multipoint and 8 unicast.

B.

8 queues, regardless of traffic type.

C.

8 unicast and 24 multipoint.

D.

8 unicast and 8 multipoint.

E.

16 queues, distributed as desired.

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Questions 48

For the Inter-AS model A VPRN, which of the following is TRUE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1. J?

Options:

A.

PE2 pushes one label on the IP packet and label-switches it to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR2 forwards an unlabeled IP packet to ASBR1.

C.

ASBR1 pushes one label on the IP packet and label-switches it to PEL

D.

PE1 pops one label and forwards the IP packet to CE1.

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Questions 49

Click the exhibit.

Which of the following statements about the implementation of the CE hub and spoke topology is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 advertises spoke routes to CE1.

B.

The primary VRF on PE1 is used to route data packets from the hub CE to the spoke sites.

C.

The secondary VRF on PE1 contains routes learned from the spoke sites.

D.

Spoke sites do not learn routes from other spoke sites directly.

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Questions 50

Which of the following statements best describes the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

The As-Path is not present as it was removed with the s-override configuration command

B.

The As-Path is not present as it was removed with the o-as-path configuration command

C.

The As-Path is not present as a policy was configured to set it to the null value

D.

The As-Path is not present as VPN-IPv4 routes do not propagate the IPv4 As-Path BGP attribute

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Questions 51

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). If CE1 sends an IP packet to 192.60.100.1, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 pushes an LDP transport label.

B.

CSC-CE1 pops the LDP label and pushes a BGP label.

C.

CSC-PE1 pops the BGP label and pushes two labels: a VPN label and an MPLS transport label.

D.

CSC-PE2 pops the MPLS label and pushes a BGP label.

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Questions 52

What option is available when using PBB to reduce the amount of required VPLS services?

Options:

A.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports 1:1 mapping of I-VPLS services to B-VPLS services.

B.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports 1:1 andM:1 mapping of l-VPLS services to B- VPLS services.

C.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports the mapping of multiple, standard VPLS services to B-VPLS services.

D.

The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR supports the mapping of multiple, standard VPLS services to l-VPLS services.

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Questions 53

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, what is a slope policy used for?

Options:

A.

Defining the slope of the TCP slow-start mechanism for self generated traffic.

B.

Defining the slope of the scheduling rate per forwarding class when using HQoS.

C.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for UDP traffic in the committed buffer pool.

D.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for TCP traffic in the shared buffer pool.

E.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for TCP traffic in the committed buffer pool.

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Questions 54

Click the exhibit button below. Given the output of the #show pools 1/2/2 network-egress command on a GigE port, what can the service provider deduce? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

QoS is not configured on the router.

B.

Packets in forwarding classes "be" and "12" are being queued.

C.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "ef" is not experiencing queuing delays.

D.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "11 "will never make use of the shared buffer pool.

E.

Out-of-profile traffic in the shared buffer pool is being dropped.

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Questions 55

WRED can be used to help avoid TCP slow-start synch problems.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 56

Forwarding subclasses are only relevant to, and are therefore applied within the context of, a _____________policy.

Options:

A.

network

B.

scheduling

C.

slope

D.

SAP-ingress

E.

network-queue

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Questions 57

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the PE device in a QoS enabled network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

A device that provides no differentiation between customer traffic flows.

B.

A device that classifies and marks customer traffic.

C.

A device that uses MPLS EXP bits to differentiate between traffic flows.

D.

A device that creates macroflows towards the core from multiple customer sites.

E.

A device that passes macroflows while optionally changing QoS markings.

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Questions 58

If packets egressing a SAP do not match any criteria defined in the SAP-egress policy, which forwarding class will these packets be assigned to?

Options:

A.

The default forwarding class defined in the SAP-egress policy.

B.

The forwarding class inherited from network ingress classification.

C.

Best Effort.

D.

If there is no match, packets will be dropped.

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Questions 59

Which of the following statements is FALSE when providing Internet access using route leaking between a VRF and the global routing table? :>

Options:

A.

It is best used when a single VPN is required to provide Internet access, as well as to maintain VPN connectivity between different customer sites.

B.

If there is no requirement for the VRF to contain the full Internet routing table, a default route to the Internet gateway router is sufficient.

C.

Only one interface on the CE is required for both VPN and Internet connectivity.

D.

The Nokia 7750 SR supports route leaking in full mesh and extranet VPRN topologies only.

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Questions 60

Which of the following fields can be marked or remarked for frames belonging to a Layer 2 service?

Options:

A.

DSCP

B.

PREC

C.

Dot1p

D.

ToS

E.

Q-in-Q

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Questions 61

Without_______, a customer's high priority traffic can be dropped before its low priority traffic.

Options:

A.

packet filtering

B.

prioritization of traffic flows

C.

least cost routing

D.

OAM functionality

E.

separation between the data plane and the control plane

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Questions 62

What is the maximum number of forwarding subclasses a forwarding class can have?

Options:

A.

3

B.

64

C.

72

D.

16

E.

56

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Questions 63

Which of the following statements regarding BGP shortcuts is FALSE?

Options:

A.

MPLS tunnels are used to carry transit traffic across the network.

B.

A full mesh of iBGP peering sessions is not required,

C.

Edge and transit routers need to be configured with BGP.

D.

The transit routers need to support LDP or RSVP-TE LSPs.

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Questions 64

Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements in the Nokia 7750 SR QoS solution'

Options:

A.

Marking/Remarking

B.

Classification

C.

Encapsulation

D.

Scheduling

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Questions 65

A service provider is using GRE for his transport tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. How can traffic be marked as it traverses the service provider's network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Using dot1p bits of the 802.1q Ethernet frame header

B.

Using DSCP bits within the ToS field of the IP packet header.

C.

Using the IP precedence bits within the ToS field of the IP packet header.

D.

Using the CLP bit of the ATM cell header.

E.

Using the EXP bits of the MPLS transport label header.

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Questions 66

Click the exhibit button below. Given this scheduler-policy configuration, which of the following can be said about the scheduler called "high"? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It is a parent scheduler.

B.

It is the top-level scheduler.

C.

It can allocate up to 50 Mbps of bandwidth to scheduler "low" since the bandwidth is not used by another Tier 3 scheduler.

D.

It is a child scheduler.

E.

It can only have queues as children.

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Questions 67

For what does a Layer 2 switch use the SA in the Ethernet frame?

Options:

A.

MAC learning

B.

SA filtering

C.

Routing table population

D.

Frame forwarding

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Questions 68

Click the exhibit button below. Given the scheduler-policy (below), which of the following can be done to guarantee that the best-effort traffic receives its configured CIR value?

Options:

A.

Change the CIR-level value for the best-effort queue to 8.

B.

Do not change anything; it is already guaranteed to receive its CIR

C.

Change the CIR-level value for the best-effort queue to 1.

D.

Change the CIR-weight value of the AF queue to 0.

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Questions 69

Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the network port ingress on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

The EXP bits in the MPLS header.

B.

The packet's source and destination IP addresses.

C.

The packet's DSCP bits.

D.

The dot1p bits in the frame header.

E.

The ID of an SDP that is transporting the packet.

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Questions 70

Which of the following are categories of forwarding classes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Real-time

B.

Assured

C.

Non-conforming

D.

High priority

E.

In-profile

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Questions 71

Packets arrive at the VPRN SAP on PE1 with DSCP marking of all. According to the QoS policies applied at routers PE1, P, and PE2, what is the DSCP value of packets egressing router PE2? (All the SDPs are MPLS-encapsulated, and all interfaces are using their default trust states).

Options:

A.

af11

B.

af12

C.

af31

D.

af33

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Questions 72

Which priority-mode queue parameter may influence both the profile marking, and scheduling priority of a queue?

Options:

A.

PIR

B.

CIR

C.

MBS

D.

burst-limit

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Questions 73

On an Alcatel-Lucent IOM 3, how is buffer memory allocated per forwarding complex?

Options:

A.

512 MB ingress, 512 MB egress

B.

256 MB ingress, 256 MB egress

C.

1 GB dynamically allocated between ingress and egress.

D.

768 MB dynamically allocated between ingress and egress.

E.

768 MB, with a minimum of 256 MB ingress and egress, and an additional 256 MB dynamically allocated.

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Questions 74

Which of the following statements regarding scheduling on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

When using profile-mode queues, traffic that is marked as in-profile on ingress and scheduled in the above-CIR loop will still be considered as in-profile at egress.

B.

When an HQoS strategy using an egress port-scheduler has been deployed, Tier 1 receives its scheduling rates based on the amount of egress bandwidth available for each forwarding class.

C.

The greater the difference between PIR and CIR rates in a queue, the less likely a CIR will be provided.

D.

Packets scheduled out of high-priority queues in the default scheduler will have a lower chance of packet loss at the expense of incurring a higher probability of delay.

E.

When using priority-mode queues, traffic that is marked as in-profile on ingress and scheduled in the above-CIR loop will be considered as in-profile at egress.

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Questions 75

To implement Hierarchical-QoS (Multi-tiered scheduling), which of the following actions must be undertaken? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

H-QoS capabilities must be enabled globally on the router

B.

A scheduler-policy must be configured.

C.

The queues in the SAP-ingress and SAP-egress policies do not require additional configuration attributes to make use of the hierarchical schedulers.

D.

The network queue policy must be configured to make use of the scheduler-policy.

E.

The scheduler-policy must be referenced in the SAP-ingress and SAP-egress policies.

F.

The scheduler-policy must be applied on the service SAP.

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Questions 76

When using the AS-override method to prevent BGP loops in VPRNs, where should the "as-override" CLI command be configured?

Options:

A.

On the PE facing the CE neighbor

B.

On the CE facing the PE neighbor

C.

On the P facing the PE neighbor

D.

On the PE facing the PE neighbor

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Questions 77

How are policy direction and data flow related on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Import policies affect ingress data flow.

B.

Export policies affect ingress data flow.

C.

Both import and export policies affect ingress data flow.

D.

Policy direction and data flow are independent.

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Questions 78

Click the exhibit.

Considering that both routers C and D are advertising the eBGP learned prefix 10.5.0.0/16 into

ISP X, which of the following best describes the route advertisement within ISP X?

Options:

A.

Router C sends the update to routers E and F only.

B.

Router C sends the update to routers D, E and F.

C.

Router C sends the update to routers A, B, E and F.

D.

Router C sends the update to routers A, B, D, E and F.

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Questions 79

Click the exhibit.

Assuming a full iBGP mesh in ISP 1, how does router R1 in ISP 1 handle a BGP update received from ISP 2?

Options:

A.

The update is sent to router R2 in ISP 1.

B.

The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1.

C.

The update is sent to all routers in ISP 1.

D.

The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1, and to router R3 in ISP 2.

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Questions 80

Click the exhibit.

Routers C and E are route reflectors. When the update for prefix 192.168.2.0/24 is received at router F, what will be the Originator_ID attribute?

Options:

A.

The router ID of router A.

B.

The router ID of router B.

C.

The router ID of router C.

D.

It will not be set.

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Questions 81

What kind of BGP attribute is the Local Preference?

Options:

A.

Optional transitive attribute.

B.

Optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Well-known mandatory attribute.

D.

Well-known discretionary attribute.

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Questions 82

Click on the exhibit below.

Assume PE-B expects avian tag as part of the RFC 4762 (Martini) encapsulation. How must PE-A be configured?

Options:

A.

The port that the SAP belongs to must have the correct ether type configured.

B.

The SAP must be configured with the right VLAN tag.

C.

The SDP VC type must be configured as type VLAN and the correct vlan-vc-tag must be specified.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 83

The operation of a VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?

Options:

A.

A frame should be sent to the PE that connects to the target site whenever possible.

B.

A frame should be flooded as little as possible.

C.

Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address.

D.

All of the above.

E.

Only (a) and (b) are true.

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Questions 84

What is the MTU impact on the SDP path-mtu if fast reroute, one-to-one mode is implemented on the LSP?

Options:

A.

There will be no impact on the path-mtu.

B.

The path-mtu will decrease by4 bytes.

C.

The path-mtu will increase by 4 bytes.

D.

The path-mtu will decrease by 8 bytes.

E.

The path-mtu will increase by 8 bytes.

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Questions 85

An l-VPLS is configured with a service id of 511. What will the value of the l-SID be assuming a default configuration?

Options:

A.

The 1-SID must be explicitly configured.

B.

The 1-SID only supports a range from 1 to 255.

C.

The 1-SID will default to 511 .the value of the service-id.

D.

Thel"SIDwilldefaultto131582, the value of the service-id + 131071.

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Questions 86

Click on the exhibit below.

Study the network diagram. Which of the following configurations is correct for user VPLS 100 on PE4?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option B

D.

Option C

E.

Option E

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Questions 87

During the process of troubleshooting a VPLS problem the "oam mac-purge" command with "register" option was used to purge a MAC address from the FDB. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done once customer traffic resumes.

B.

Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done with the "oam mac-populate" command.

C.

Customer traffic destined to the MAC address that was purged will be dropped until the MAC address is relearned with the "oam mac-populate" command.

D.

Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done with the "oam mac-register" command.

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Questions 88

What is the default fdb size for a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

100

B.

1

C.

25

D.

250

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Questions 89

When ports configured with IEEE 802.3ah EFM are operationally down, what must the device do before declaring the ports are up?

Options:

A.

The device will try to force the other side up using the evaluating flag in the PDU.

B.

The device will wait for the trasmit-interval of 5 before trying to rediscover the neighbor.

C.

The device will detect the port change and will wait for normal operation mode.

D.

The device will detect the port change and revert to discovery mode.

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Questions 90

The command "send flush-on-failure" has been enabled within a VPLS instance. What does the PE do upon detection of a SAP failure within the VPLS?

Options:

A.

The PE sends an LDP control message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance.

B.

The PE sends an LDP control message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance that are associated with the PE that detected the failure.

C.

The PE flushes it's local FDB only.

D.

The PE sends an oam service message that flushes all FDB entries in the VPLS instance.

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Questions 91

In IEEE 802.1ag, which two key functions are configured on bridge ports (SAPs and SDPs) to support CFM messages? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

MEP

B.

MAP

C.

MIP

D.

MUP

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Questions 92

Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS service? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

MAC learning

B.

Frame replication

C.

Frame fragmentation

D.

Frame forwarding

E.

Must discard frames with an unknown destination MAC

F.

MSTP

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Questions 93

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Filter Policies can only be applied on egress.

B.

An IP filter can be applied on ingress at the same time a MAC filter is applied on the egress of the SAP.

C.

Filter Policies can be based on IP, MAC, and VPI/VCI addresses.

D.

Any number of ingress and egress filter policies can be associated with a SAP.

E.

An IP filter and a MAC filter can be applied on the ingress SAP at the same time.

F.

None of the above.

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Questions 94

Click on the exhibit below.

The VPLS service MTU on R2 is 1514 bytes. What must the service MTU be on all other routers participating in the VPLS?

Options:

A.

The service MTU must be equal to or smaller than 1514 bytes.

B.

The service MTU must be 1514 bytes.

C.

The service MTU must be equal to or greater than 1514 bytes.

D.

The service MTU can be any value.

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Questions 95

Based on the VPRN BGP decision process, which of the following routes is selected first if the command "PE1>config>service>vprn> bgp best-path-selection as-path-ignore" is executed?

Options:

A.

The route learned from an eBGP peer.

B.

The route with the lowest Origin.

C.

The route with the lowest originator ID or BGP Identifier.

D.

The route with the shortest AS path.

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Questions 96

You are configuring a VPLS spoke termination to a VPRN on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. If LDP is used for all transport tunnels, what type of sessions are established by the VPRN PE router that is configured with the spoke termination?

Options:

A.

T-LDP and LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

B.

T-LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

C.

LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

D.

LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers, and both T-LDP and LDP sessions with the VPLS PE router

E.

T-LDP and LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and LDP sessions with the VPLS PE router

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Questions 97

Which of the following devices would typically have VRF instances?

Options:

A.

Any CE device

B.

Any PE device

C.

Any P device

D.

Any router in the service provider core

E.

Any customer router

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Questions 98

What operation is performed by a P device on the label signaled by MP-BGP when it receives a labeled packet for a VPRN service?

Options:

A.

It will label switch the packet based on this label

B.

It will decrement the TTL and label switch the packet based on this label

C.

It will SWAP the label for a new label and then label switch the packet

D.

The P router does not perform any operation on this label

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Questions 99

When configuring the CE with the selected CE-PE routing protocol on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following statements is true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

The protocol is configured under the config>service context

B.

The protocol is configured under the global router context

C.

The interface leading to the PE is defined as a protocol neighbor

D.

The routing protocol used must be the same as the routing protocol used at other CE-PE locations in the same VPN.

E.

A routing policy may or may not be required depending on the routing requirements and routing protocol

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Questions 100

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model C VPRN, which router is configured as shown?

Options:

A.

PE1

B.

RR1

C.

ASBR1

D.

ASBR2

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Questions 101

Choose the best answer to describe the result of the configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

The PE will install a maximum of 40 prefixes into the customer vrf and generate a log message when 40 routes are received

B.

The PE will install a maximum of 40 prefixes into the customer vrf, and generate a log message both when 30 and 41 routes are received

C.

The PE will install a maximum of 40 prefixes into the customer vrf, generate a log message when 10 routes are received and disable learning of new routes at 41

D.

The PE will install a maximum of 40 prefixes into the customer vrf, generate a log message when 10 routes are received and drop the connection at 41

E.

The PE will install a maximum of 40 prefixes into the customer vrf, generate a log message when 4 routes are received and disable learning of new routes at 41

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Questions 102

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which CLI command displays the Route Target(s) associated to a prefix?

Options:

A.

Show router bgp routes

B.

Show router route-table summary

C.

Show router bgp routes vpn-ipv4 detail

D.

Show router route-table

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Questions 103

Click the exhibit.

Router R4 is an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR configured for the extranet VPRN network. Which CLI command is executed on router R4 to produce the displayed output?

Options:

A.

"show router 10 route-table"

B.

"show router route-table"

C.

"show router 20 route-table"

D.

There is no CLI command that can produce this output on router R4

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Questions 104

Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured with _________________.

Options:

A.

A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE

B.

MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.

C.

MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE

D.

MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices

E.

A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for exchanging routes with the PE

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Questions 105

When would it be appropriate to use the as-override command?

Options:

A.

When sites of different VPRN customers use the same BGP AS number

B.

When sites of the same VPRN customer use the same BGP AS number

C.

When sites of different VPRN customers use different BGP AS numbers

D.

When sites of the same VPRN customer use different BGP AS numbers

E.

When the customer site AS number is the same as the provider AS number

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Questions 106

Which of the following statements best describes the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

This is the base routing table from CE-1

B.

This is the base routing table from PE-1

C.

This is the customer vrf from CE-1

D.

This is the customer vrf from PE-1D.This is the customer vrf from PE-1

E.

This is the customer vrf from PE-2E.This is the customer vrf from PE-2E.This is the customer vrf from PE-2

F.

This is the base routing table from PE-2F.This is the base routing table from PE-2F.This is the base routing table from PE-2

G.

This is the base routing table from CE-2G.This is the base routing table from CE-2G.This is the base routing table from CE-2

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Questions 107

Based on the VPRN BGP decision process, which of the following routes is selected first?

Options:

A.

The route with the lowest MED.

B.

The route with the shortest AS Path.

C.

The route received from the lowest peer IP address.

D.

The route with the lowest Origin.

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Questions 108

When configuring a VPRN service on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, where should the following policy be applied?

Options:

A.

On the CE under the RIP context

B.

On the PE under the BGP context

C.

On the PE under the RIP context

D.

On the CE under the BGP context

E.

This policy is not required

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Questions 109

Which command should be used on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR acting as the PE, to view the table containing the BGP routes received from the remote sites?

Options:

A.

Show router bgp routes

B.

Show router bgp routes address-family vpn-ipv4

C.

Show router bgp routes

D.

Show router bgp routes

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Questions 110

Click the exhibit.

Which of the following best describes the output?

Options:

A.

The AS-Path is not present because a policy is configured on PE2 to set it to null.

B.

The AS-Path is not present because a policy is configured on CE1 to set it to null.

C.

The AS-Path is not present because a policy is configured on PE1 to set it to null.

D.

The AS-Path is not present because VPN-IPv4 routes do not propagate the IPv4 AS-Path BGP attribute.

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Questions 111

Click the exhibit.

An extranet VPRN is configured on Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs. On which router(s) should the displayed configuration be applied?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Routers R1 and R2

D.

Router R3

E.

Router R4

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Questions 112

Which of the following best describes the goal of an Extranet VPRN?

Options:

A.

Allow routes to be exchanged between all or selected sites of one VPRN and all or selected sites of a second VPRN

B.

Allow the service provider to provide multiple VPRNs with Internet access

C.

Reduce the number of VPRN tunnels required

D.

Simplify the administration of multiple VPRNs

E.

Force all traffic in multiple VPRNs to pass through a single device

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Questions 113

Which of the following about the configuration of an inter-AS model C VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

MP-iBGP sessions must be configured between the PE routers in each AS.

B.

LDP must be configured in each AS.

C.

MP-eBGP sessions must be configured between the ASBRs.

D.

The ASBRs must be configured with "enable-inter-as-vpn".

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Questions 114

Which of the following about a full mesh VPRN design is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Each customer site has a logically direct route to every other customer site.

B.

It provides optimal routing between all sites.

C.

It allows access between all CE devices and all sites participating in the same VRF.

D.

It requires a full BGP mesh in the provider core.

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Questions 115

At what point does the Route Target become associated with a route?

Options:

A.

When the route is first received at the P from the PE

B.

When the route from the CE is populated into the VRF at the PE

C.

When the route from the PE is populated into the VRF at the CE

D.

When the route is propagated from the PE to the CE

E.

When the route is exported into the MP-BGP table from the VRF

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Questions 116

When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Distributing the customer generated labels between sites

B.

Distributing the customer routing information between

C.

Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination

D.

Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site

E.

Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites

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Questions 117

Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.

Options:

A.

Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain

B.

Signal the egress VPRN ID

C.

Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain

D.

Transport route updates between PEs

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Questions 118

Which protocol is used to exchange customer VPRN routes between PE devices?

Options:

A.

OSPF

B.

ISIS

C.

MP-BGP

D.

BGP

E.

Targeted LDP

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Questions 119

Which command is used to generate the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

Show service 3

B.

Show service id 3

C.

Show service 3 base

D.

Show service id 3 base

E.

Show service 3 detail

F.

Show service id 3 detail

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Questions 120

Click the exhibit.

For the Inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following about the inter-as-label output on ASBR1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

ASBR1 includes label 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to PEL

D.

ASBR1 includes labels 131068 and 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

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Questions 121

Which of the following is a characteristic of inter-AS model C VPRN?

Options:

A.

A data packet destined to a remote AS is encapsulated with three labels within the originating AS.

B.

The ASBR redistributes VPN-IPv4 updates to its ASBR eBGP peers.

C.

PE routers in different ASes exchange IPv4 routes directly between each other using eBGP.

D.

The advertising ASBR assigns a new label to the route before sending it via an MP-eBGP update to its ASBR peer.

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Questions 122

Click the exhibit.

AS-override is configured on PE1 to eliminate the BGP loops. What is the expected AS-Path in the VPN-IPv4 route 64496:10:192.168.2.0/27 received by PE1?

Options:

A.

64496 64497

B.

64496

C.

64497

D.

64497 64497

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Questions 123

In inter-AS model C VPRN, which of the following about the command "advertise-label ipv4" is TRUE?

Options:

A.

This command is required on all PE routers to distribute labeled IPv4 routes directly to PEs in remote AS.

B.

This command is required on the ASBRs to exchange labeled IPv4 routes between the ASs.

C.

This command is required on the route reflectors to exchange customer routes between ASs as labeled IPv4 routes.

D.

This command is required on all PE routers to distribute labeled IPv4 routes to connected CEs.

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Questions 124

Click the exhibit.

For the inter-AS model A VPRN, which of the following is FALSE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1.1?

Options:

A.

CE2 forwards an unlabeled IP packet to PE2 via the VPRN interface.

B.

PE2 pushes two labels on the IP packet and label-switches the packet to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR2 pops one label from the IP packet and label-switches it to ASBR1.

D.

ASBR1 pushes two labels on the IP packet and label-switches the packet to PEL.

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Questions 125

What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Memory exhaustion in the provider core

B.

Route leaking between the customer networks

C.

CPU utilization for route processing

D.

Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks

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Questions 126

Click on the exhibit below.

Given the following configuration, which service type will VPLS 1 and VPLS 100 be displayed as with the "show service service-using" command?

Options:

A.

VPLS 1 will be displayed as mVPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as VPLS.

B.

VPLS 1 will be displayed as mVPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as uVPLS

C.

VPLS 1 will be displayed as VPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as VPLS.

D.

VPLS 1 will displayed VPLS and VPLS 100 will be displayed as uVPLS.

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Questions 127

Click on the exhibit below.

Assuming there is a full mesh of mesh-SDPs between the PEs within each metro network and a spoke-SDP between PE-C of Metro A and PE-B of Metro B. how is traffic forwarded from PE-A in Metro A to PE-D of Metro B? Select the most accurate statement.

Options:

A.

An LSP must be configured between PE-A and PE-D for this traffic to be forwarded.

B.

A VPLS FDB lookup is done at PE-A of Metro A only

C.

An SDP must be configured between PE-A of Metro A and PE-D of Metro D for this traffic to be forwarded

D.

A VPLS FDB lookup is done at PE-A and PE-C of Metro A and PE-B of Metro B

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Questions 128

What is the default service-mtu for a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

1500

B.

1514

C.

1518

D.

It depends on the access port MTU.

E.

It depends on the network port MTU.

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Questions 129

What is the DA address used for in the Ethernet Header?

Options:

A.

MAC learning

B.

SA filtering

C.

Routing table population

D.

Frame forwarding

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Questions 130

In IEEE 802.1ag, how are loops detected?

Options:

A.

Spanning-tree BPDUs are returned to the sender.

B.

The MEP sees its own CFM frames returned to itself.

C.

This is not a function of IEEE 802.lag but of 802.1D

D.

The record field of the CFM frame keeps track of chassis-mac addresses.

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Questions 131

Click on the exhibit below.

The following IP filter has been configured and applied to a SAP in a non-VPLS service. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

An error will be generated and the configuration will not be allowed.

B.

The filter entry will be ignored and traffic matching the criteria will be forwarded

C.

All traffic matching entry 20 will be dropped.

D.

Traffic matching entry 20 will be forwarded to sdp 100:1.

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Questions 132

Which PDU type is sent periodically over a link in the IEEE 802.3ah EFM as a method of keepalive?

Options:

A.

Event notification.

B.

Loopback control.

C.

Information.

D.

Variable request.

E.

Variable response.

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Questions 133

The service mtu of a VPLS is set to 9100. What is the recommended MTU value that can be set for the access port assuming dot1q encapsulation?

Options:

A.

9100

B.

9104

C.

9108

D.

9122

E.

9126

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Questions 134

RSTP blocks a spoke-sdp using a management VPLS. Is traffic affected on an ES using the same transport SDP?

Options:

A.

Yes

B.

No

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Questions 135

How is the Primary Bridge chosen in a VPLS?

Options:

A.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh run a separate Spanning Tree instance in the Core. The Primary Bridge is the Root Bridge for the VPLS mesh.

B.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge is closest to Root Bridge. This bridge becomes the Primary Bridge.

C.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge has the lowest bridge-id. This bridge becomes the Primary Bridge.

D.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge is the Root Bridge. This becomes the Primary Bridge.

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Questions 136

Why is it best practice to set the bridge priority in an STP network? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

This is not a best practice. Any switch can be used as the root bridge.

B.

So that you know which links will be active in your network.

C.

To prevent a new switch from becoming root when added to the network.

D.

To allow all ports on the root switch to become alternate ports.

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Questions 137

In RSTP, which state do all ports initialize in?

Options:

A.

Designated

B.

Discarding

C.

Listening

D.

Root

E.

Forwarding

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Questions 138

When deploying Active/Standby pseudowires, the CE does not require any special configuration

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 139

How can one ensure that a specific switch will be select as root in an STP network?

Options:

A.

Set the bridge priority to 131071.

B.

Set the bridge priority to 0.

C.

Set the bridge priority to 32768.

D.

Leave the bridge priority as the default.

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Questions 140

In the IEEE 802.1 ag, how are merged services detected?

Options:

A.

The MEP sees the CFM frame from a different MEG.

B.

The MEP sees a different service-id in the frame sent by a MEP.

C.

The MIP transmits the service-id for each service. The MIP should only see it's own service-id.

D.

This is a function of 802,3ah EFM,

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Questions 141

What function in IEEE 802.1 ah helps to limit the amount of MAC addresses learned in the core?

Options:

A.

I-VPLS is configured in the core of the network with an l-MAC address. This l-MAC address is the only MAC learned in the core

B.

The B-VPLS and l-VPLS are configured in the edge. The B-VPLS is configured with a Backbone MAC and is the only MAC learned in the core

C.

Each SDP is configured with a Backbone MAC to hide customer MAC addresses in the core

D.

Each SAP is associated with a common l-MAC to hide customer MAC addresses in the core

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Questions 142

A customer has requested a VPLS service. The customer is using dot1q encapsulation and they have requested that all vlan tags be transparently passed. Which two SAP IDs will accept VLAN tags and pass them transparently? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1

B.

sap 1/1/1:0*

C.

sap 1/1/1:0

D.

sap 1/1/1:*

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Questions 143

Which of the following statements about Spanning Tree Protocol is true?

Options:

A.

The switch with the lowest priority becomes the root.

B.

The switch with the highest priority becomes the root.

C.

The switch with the lowest MAC address always becomes the root.

D.

The switch with the highest MAC address always becomes the root.

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Questions 144

You are providing a customer two VPLS services in two different Metro networks. VPLS 500 has been configured in Metro 1 and VPLS 900 has been configured in Metro 2. The customer has requested that they have connectivity between the Metro Networks with their existing VPLS services. Which configuration on the PE routers linking the metro networks will allow for VPLS 500 and VPLS 900 to act as a single VPLS service? Assume default values for all VPLS parameters and SDP 999 exists between the metro networks.

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 145

A router has just learned the 10th MAC address while the FDB size is also set to 10. What is the likely outcome?

Options:

A.

The frame is dropped.

B.

The frame is always flooded

C.

The frame is forwarded and MAC learning is automatically disabled.

D.

The frame is discarded if the destination is unknown.

E.

More information is required to determine the fate of this new frame.

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Questions 146

Click on the exhibit below.

The SAP on PE-A has been configured with dot1q encapsulation. The SAP on PE-B has been configured with qinq encapsulation. CE-A sends frames with a single tag of 100. The VLAN tag from CE-A must be passed transparently. CE-B is expecting a frame with a top tag of 200 and bottom tag of 100. Which of the following is the correct SAP id for PE-B?

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1:200.100

B.

sap 1/1/1:200*

C.

sap 1/1/1:*

D.

sap 1/1/1:0*

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Questions 147

Which protocol is used to signal the status of the active links between the PE and the CE in MC-LAG?

Options:

A.

MSTP

B.

MCLAG

C.

LACP

D.

DHCP

E.

A proprietary protocol

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Questions 148

What action will be taken when an Ethernet switch receives a frame with a known DA and an outer Ethertype value of 0x0800 on a dot1q encapsulated port?

Options:

A.

The frame will be forwarded out the port associated with the DA.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be flooded to all ports.

D.

The frame will be fragmented and forwarded out the port associated with the DA.

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Questions 149

What is the name of the feature supported on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR that prevents MAC explosion in large VPLS deployments?

Options:

A.

H-VPLS

B.

M-VPLS

C.

PBB

D.

MC-EP

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Questions 150

Click on the exhibit below.

In the diagram below, SAP 1 is put into the blocking state as a result of the spanning tree protocol. What will occur in the VPLS instance if SAP 2 goes down and SAP 1 transitions to the forwarding state? Select the most accurate statement.

Options:

A.

A Spanning Tree BPDU will be sent across the mesh flushing the FDB table in all devices participating in the VPLS instance.

B.

Stale information will be used within the VPLS instance to forward traffic until the FDB ages out.

C.

An LDP control message will be sent to all devices in the mesh participating in the VPLS instance. Only MAC addresses associated with the PE that the failure occurred on will be flushed.

D.

An LDP control message will be sent to all devices in the mesh participating in the VPLS instance. The entire FDB in the VPLS instance will be flushed.

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Questions 151

Click on the exhibit below.

CE-A sends frames with 2 tags. If the SAP on PE-A is "sap 1/1/1:1 .*" and the SAP on PE-B is "sap 1/1/1:100.200" how many tags will there be on the frame when it egresses from the SAP on PE-B?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 152

Click on the exhibit below.

Which bridge will become the root bridge?

Options:

A.

Bridge B

B.

Bridge C

C.

Bridge D

D.

Bridge E

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Questions 153

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the output below which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

VPLS1500 is a user VPLS.

B.

VPLS 1500 is management VPLS.

C.

Spanning tree BPDUs for the management VPLS are tagged.

D.

Spanning tree BPDUs for the management VPLS are untagged.

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Questions 154

If the command "disable-learning" has been added at the VPLS level, then MAC entries which have already been learned will not be aged.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 155

Why should you configure send-flush-on failure on your PE routers when using active/standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

It flushes the local FDB speeding recovery

B.

It discards all packets in the queue and sends icmp-discad messages to the sender. The packets are re-transmitted resulting in no loss of data.

C.

On failure, the PE sends an LDP flush-all-from-me message to all PE devices in the VPLS. This speeds convergence to the new topology.

D.

It is not important to use send-flush-on-failure as Active/Standby signalling automatically converges the FDB in all VPLS instances

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Questions 156

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options:

A.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the lower the age-time, the larger the fdb-table-size should be.

B.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the higher the age-time, the larger the fdb-table-size should be.

C.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the higher the age-time, the smaller the fdb-table-size should be.

D.

There is no relationship between the age-time and the fdb-table-size.

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Questions 157

When a PE node receives a PBB encapsulated frame on a B-VPLS, how does the PE determine which l-VPLS it belongs to?

Options:

A.

The l-TAG in the l-SID is inspected to determine where the frame should be delivered.

B.

When the B-MAC header is stripped the customer MAC address is then looked up in the FDB

C.

The l-SID in the l-TAG is inspected to determine where the frame should be delivered.

D.

The PE inspects the service label in the MPLS header before stripping the B-MAC header.

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Questions 158

Which of the following regarding BGP confederations is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The entire confederation is viewed as a single AS by an eBGP peer.

B.

Within a confederation, each member AS is considered as a stand-alone AS.

C.

Member ASs within a confederation can use route reflection.

D.

Member ASs must be fully meshed within a confederation.

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Questions 159

Click the exhibit.

After router A receives the BGP update for the 10.3.3.0/24 prefix, which routers will the route be propagated to?

Options:

A.

All routers with which it has a BGP session.

B.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router B.

C.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router C.

D.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router D.

E.

Only eBGP neighbors.

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Questions 160

Click on the exhibit.

AS 65540 is using MPLS to provide BGP shortcuts for its iBGP routing. AS 65541 is advertising prefix 192.168.1.0/27 into BGP. Which routers have the BGP update for the advertised prefix in their BGP table?

Options:

A.

Routers R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5.

B.

Routers R1and R4 only.

C.

Routers R1, R2, R3 and R4 only.

D.

Routers R1, R4 and R5 only.

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Questions 161

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that none of the routers in AS 65540 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes on router R1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 162

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that router R6 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 163

Which of the following regarding the withdrawal of routes from one BGP speaker to another is

TRUE?

Options:

A.

An update message is used. Only a single prefix can be withdrawn at a time.

B.

An update message is used. Multiple prefixes can be withdrawn at a time.

C.

A withdraw message is used. Only a single prefix can be withdrawn at a time.

D.

A withdraw message is used. Multiple prefixes can be withdrawn at a time.

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Questions 164

What is the purpose of configuring a triggered-policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Policy changes are delayed until the peer router with the affected routes reboots.

B.

Policy changes are delayed until route updates for affected BGP routes are received from peers.

C.

Policy changes are delayed until BGP sessions are cleared or BGP is reset.

D.

Policy changes are delayed until the router reboots.

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Questions 165

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an iBGP peer with a MED value of 500. What

MED value is sent to eBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

The IGP cost

C.

500

D.

None

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Questions 166

What is the result of configuring the following policy statement as a BGP import policy on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

All BGP routes are accepted.

B.

All routes matching prefix lists "List-1" and "List-2" are rejected.

C.

BGP routes matching prefix lists "List-1" or "List-2" are rejected.

D.

BGP routes matching prefix lists "List-1" and "List-2" are rejected.

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Questions 167

Click the exhibit.

AS 65540 routers are iBGP fully-meshed. Prefixes advertised by router R2 have a local preference of 200. Router R1 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R2 and R3. Assuming that router R3 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R4?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 168

Click the exhibit.

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured. Which of the following configurations is required on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router A to establish an IPv6 BGP session to router D?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 169

Based on the default settings for the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, when a policy change is made and committed, what action is required by the user for the change to take effect?

Options:

A.

Execute a command to re-evaluate all routes in the Local-RIB against the configured export policies.

B.

Execute a command to re-evaluate all routes in the RIB-In against the configured import policies.

C.

Execute a command to reset the BGP session with the affected peer or peers.

D.

No further action is required.

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Questions 170

Which of the following behaviors regarding the modification of BGP attributes within a confederation is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Next Hop is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

B.

Origin Code is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

C.

AS Path is modified when crossing member AS boundaries within a confederation.

D.

None of the well known mandatory attributes is modified within a confederation.

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Questions 171

Which of the following regarding BGP authentication on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Authentication is performed before establishing the BGP session.

B.

Authentication can only be configuredon the group or neighbor level.

C.

By default, MD5 authentication is disabled.

D.

Peer authentication may be optionally requested in an open message.

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Questions 172

Click the exhibit.

If router A originates an update for prefix 192.168.0.1/27, what will the update contain when it reaches router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200, local-preference of 100.

B.

AS Path of 65200, local-preference of None.

C.

Null AS Path, local-preference of 100.

D.

Null AS Path, local-preference of None.

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Questions 173

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a route from an eBGP peer with a MED value of 500. What

MED value is sent to iBGP peers?

Options:

A.

100

B.

The IGP cost

C.

500

D.

None

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Questions 174

Which of the following statements regarding BGP control plane convergence is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Core and edge node failure recovery depends on IGP convergence.

B.

Edge neighbor failure is detected by the eBGP session timeout.

C.

BGP control plane convergence is independent of number of affected prefixes.

D.

Upon BGP control plane convergence, an optimal path is installed in the FIB.

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Questions 175

Click the exhibit.

AS 65540 routers are iBGP fully-meshed. Assume routers R4, R5 and R6 are configured with addpaths ipv4 send 2 receive". Which routes to 192.168.0.1/27 is router R6 expected to have in its BGP routing table?

Options:

A.

Two routes from router R4.

B.

Two routes from router R5.

C.

Two routes; one from router R4 and one from router R5.

D.

Four routes; two from router R4 and two from router R5.

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Questions 176

Which of the following about a single-homed AS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A single-homed AS is also known as a stub AS.

B.

A single-homed AS is also known as a leaf AS.

C.

A single-homed AS uses either the ISP AS number or a private AS number.

D.

A single-homed AS can be either transit or non-transit

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Questions 177

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 are RR2 are redundant route reflectors for clients R3 and R4. Which of the following is a valid configuration on router R3?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 178

Two Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs are established BGP peers with the following add-paths configuration:

R1: configure router bgp add-paths ipv4 send 4 receive

R2: configure router bgp add-paths ipv4 send 2

If router R1 advertises three routes for a given prefix X, how many routes is router R2 expected to have for prefix X?

Options:

A.

None

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 179

Which of the following parameters does NOT have to match for an iBGP session to be successfully established?

Options:

A.

BGP version number.

B.

The local AS number.

C.

The Hold Time.

D.

Authentication.

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Questions 180

Click the exhibit.

AS 65100 is advertising 192.168.1.0/27 into BGP. Which of the following AS Paths would the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 contain when viewed on router R7?

Options:

A.

65206 65202 65100

B.

(65206 65202)65100

C.

(65204 65206 65202) 65100

D.

(65200) 65100

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Questions 181

Click the exhibit.

AS 65550 owns the CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R4 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to AS65540. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the aggregate route advertisement?

Options:

A.

The aggregator attribute will not be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will not be set.

B.

The aggregator attribute will not be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will be set.

C.

The aggregator attribute will be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will not be set.

D.

The aggregator attribute will be present, and the atomic aggregate flag will be set.

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Questions 182

BGP is configured on two peers, routers A and B. Router A is configured with a Hold Time timer of 60 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 25 seconds. Router B is configured with a Hold Time timer of 90 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 70 seconds. What will the active Keepalive timer be on router B?

Options:

A.

70 seconds

B.

25 seconds

C.

20 seconds

D.

30 seconds

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Questions 183

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is configured with an export policy to redistribute its directly-connected networks into BGP. Which of the following databases contains the routes for these networks?

Options:

A.

The routes are in the RIB-In.

B.

The routes are in the Loc-RIB.

C.

The routes are in the RIB-Out.

D.

The routes are not in any of the BGP databases.

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Questions 184

Click the exhibit.

Router R6 is a route reflector for clients R1, R2 and R5 with local preferences 100, 200 and 500 respectively. Router R3 advertises prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R1, R2 and R5 which are configured with advertise-external. Routers R4 and R6 are both configured with "add-paths ipv4 send 2 receive". Which routes to 192.168.0.1/27 is router R4 expected to have in its BGP routing table?

Options:

A.

The routes from routers R1, R2 and R5.

B.

The routes from routers R1and R2.

C.

The routes from routers R2 and R5.

D.

Two routes are chosen at random and advertised to router R4.

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Questions 185

An autonomous system has 7 routers configured with BGP. How many iBGP sessions are required for a fully meshed configuration?

Options:

A.

7

B.

13

C.

21

D.

42

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Questions 186

A confederated AS is comprised of three members. One member is comprised of 4 routers, while the other two members are comprised of 3 routers each. Assuming member ASs are fully meshed and use full mesh iBGP, what is the required number of BGP sessions within the confederation?

Options:

A.

12

B.

13

C.

14

D.

15

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Questions 187

When an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a BGP route with an AS Path loop, what action is taken by default?

Options:

A.

The route is ignored.

B.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the LOC-RIB.

C.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-In.

D.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-Out.

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Questions 188

Assuming that "client1" and "client2" are directly-connected networks, what is the result of executing the following BGP policy?

Options:

A.

"client2" routes will be tagged with communities "West" and "North".

B.

"client2" routes will be tagged with communities "West", "North" and "South".

C.

"client2" routes will be tagged with community "West".

D.

"client2" routes will be tagged with community "South".

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Questions 189

Which of the following regarding the TTL of a BGP message is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TTL is a well-known mandatory BGP attribute.

B.

The default TTL value of an eBGP message is 1, and 64 for an iBGP message.

C.

The default TTL value of an iBGP message can be modified using the multihop command.

D.

The default TTL value of an eBGP message can be modified using the "ttl-security" command.

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Questions 190

Which of the following regarding the connections between eBGP peers is TRUE?

Options:

A.

eBGP peers typically use system addresses for session establishment.

B.

eBGP peers are managed under a single administration.

C.

eBGP peers do not propagate updates learned via iBGP.

D.

eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.

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Questions 191

What will happen if an update is received with an unrecognized optional non-transitive attribute?

Options:

A.

The router will accept the update and send a notification.

B.

The router will not accept the update and send a notification.

C.

The router will accept the update and ignore the attribute.

D.

The router will accept the update and propagate the attribute.

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Exam Code: 4A0-C02
Exam Name: Nokia SRA Composite Exam
Last Update: May 15, 2024
Questions: 639
$64  $159.99
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