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200-301 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

Options:

A.

communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

B.

reports device errors to a controller

C.

generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

D.

facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

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Questions 5

A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

CDP

C.

flooding

D.

multicast

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Questions 6

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

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Questions 7

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

Options:

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

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Questions 9

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

iPv6 address

D.

OSPf process ID

E.

OSPf stub flag

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Questions 10

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

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Questions 11

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

Options:

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Questions 12

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)

Options:

A.

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B.

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C.

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

D.

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E.

It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

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Questions 13

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

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Questions 14

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

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Questions 16

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

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Questions 17

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Even: Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

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Questions 18

Refer to the exhibit.

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

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Questions 19

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

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Questions 20

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

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Questions 21

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Options:

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Questions 22

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

Options:

A.

role-based access control

B.

biometrics

C.

multifactor authentication

D.

physical access control

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Questions 23

Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

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Questions 24

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

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Questions 25

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

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Questions 26

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

Options:

A.

read

B.

create

C.

replace

D.

update

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Questions 27

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

Options:

A.

read

B.

update

C.

create

D.

delete

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Questions 28

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

Options:

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

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Questions 29

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

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Questions 30

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Options:

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

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Questions 31

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

Options:

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Questions 32

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

Options:

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

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Questions 33

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

Options:

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

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Questions 34

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

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Questions 35

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

Options:

A.

adminadmin123

B.

default

C.

testing 1234

D.

cisco123

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Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

Options:

A.

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

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Questions 37

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

Options:

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor's port ID

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Questions 38

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

Options:

A.

overlay

B.

northbound

C.

underlay

D.

southbound

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Questions 39

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

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Questions 40

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

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Questions 41

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 42

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

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Questions 43

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

Options:

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

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Questions 44

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

Options:

A.

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

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Questions 45

Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 46

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

Options:

A.

Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

B.

Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller

C.

Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller.

D.

The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller.

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Questions 47

Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

SCP

D.

Telnet

E.

SSH

Questions 48

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

Options:

A.

1729.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

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Questions 49

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

Options:

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

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Questions 50

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load-balanced between them

D.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN

E.

The two routers share the same interface IP address and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

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Questions 51

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

Options:

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Questions 52

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B.

Administratively shut down the ports

C.

Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

D.

Configure the ports as trunk ports

E.

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

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Questions 53

What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.

to mitigate delays over slow links

B.

to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

C.

to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to

D.

be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

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Questions 54

What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

B.

Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

C.

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

D.

explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

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Questions 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

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Questions 56

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

B.

support standalone or controller-based architectures

C.

serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

D.

provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

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Questions 57

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

B.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

C.

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

D.

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

E.

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

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Questions 58

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

Options:

A.

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

B.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

C.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

D.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

E.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

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Questions 59

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

Options:

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

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Questions 60

In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Management

C.

Data

D.

application

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Questions 61

Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?

Options:

A.

There is a native VLAN mismatch

B.

Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

C.

The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN

D.

All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

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Questions 62

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

Options:

A.

worm

B.

malware

C.

DDoS

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 63

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

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Questions 64

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

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Questions 65

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right

Options:

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Questions 66

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

Options:

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Questions 67

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Options:

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Questions 68

How will Link Aggregation be Implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

B.

The EthernetChannel must be configured in "mode active".

C.

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

D.

To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

Questions 69

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

Options:

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

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Questions 70

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

Options:

A.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685

B.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

C.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

D.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

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Questions 71

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

Options:

A.

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

B.

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

C.

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

D.

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

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Questions 72

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

Options:

A.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

B.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

C.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

D.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

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Questions 74

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

Options:

A.

enable secret

B.

service password-encryption

C.

username Cisco password encrypt

D.

enable password

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Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

Options:

A.

The port transitions to STP blocking

B.

The port transitions to the root port

C.

The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

D.

The port goes into error-disable state

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Questions 76

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 77

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 78

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

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Questions 79

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Options:

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 80

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

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Questions 81

What is the purpose of an SSID?

Options:

A.

It provides network security

B.

It differentiates traffic entering access posits

C.

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

D.

It identifies a WLAN

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Questions 82

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

Options:

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

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Questions 83

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

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Questions 84

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

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Questions 85

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 86

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

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Questions 87

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

Options:

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

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Questions 88

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

Buy Now
Questions 89

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

Options:

A.

Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B.

Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C.

Content-Type: applicationhttps://www.dumpspedia.com/json; charset=utf-8

D.

Accept: applicationhttps://www.dumpspedia.com/json

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Questions 90

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

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Questions 91

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

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Questions 92

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 93

Refer to me exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

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Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 95

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

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Questions 96

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

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Questions 97

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

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Questions 98

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Questions 99

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

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Questions 100

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

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Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

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Questions 102

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Buy Now
Questions 103

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 104

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

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Questions 105

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Buy Now
Questions 106

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

Questions 107

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Options:

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

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Questions 109

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 110

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Buy Now
Questions 111

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Options:

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Questions 112

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Buy Now
Questions 113

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Buy Now
Questions 114

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Buy Now
Questions 115

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Options:

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

Buy Now
Questions 116

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Buy Now
Questions 117

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Questions 118

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

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Questions 119

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 120

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 121

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

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Questions 122

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Options:

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Questions 123

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Buy Now
Questions 124

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Buy Now
Questions 125

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Options:

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Buy Now
Questions 126

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

Buy Now
Questions 127

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 128

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Buy Now
Questions 129

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Questions 130

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

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Questions 131

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Buy Now
Questions 132

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Buy Now
Questions 133

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 134

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

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Questions 135

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Buy Now
Questions 136

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

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Questions 137

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

Options:

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

Buy Now
Questions 138

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 139

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 140

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Buy Now
Questions 141

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

Buy Now
Questions 142

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Buy Now
Questions 143

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

Buy Now
Questions 144

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Buy Now
Questions 145

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Buy Now
Questions 146

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Questions 147

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Buy Now
Questions 148

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Buy Now
Questions 149

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 150

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Buy Now
Questions 151

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Buy Now
Questions 152

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 153

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

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Questions 154

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

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Questions 155

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Buy Now
Questions 156

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 157

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 158

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

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Questions 159

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

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Questions 160

What is the function of a server?

Options:

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

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Questions 161

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

Options:

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

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Questions 162

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Options:

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

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Questions 163

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

Options:

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

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Questions 164

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

Buy Now
Questions 165

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

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Questions 166

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?

Options:

A.

Each device is separated by the same number of hops

B.

It provides variable latency

C.

It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.

D.

Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

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Questions 167

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Options:

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Buy Now
Questions 168

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

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Questions 169

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 170

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

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Questions 171

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Questions 172

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Options:

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Questions 173

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

Options:

A.

move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B.

transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively

C.

forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses

D.

flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

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Questions 174

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 175

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

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Questions 176

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

Options:

A.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

B.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

C.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

D.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

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Questions 177

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

RADIUS

C.

TACACS+

D.

HTTP

Buy Now
Questions 178

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Options:

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

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Questions 179

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

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Questions 180

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Options:

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Questions 181

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Options:

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Buy Now
Questions 182

What Is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

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Questions 183

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

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Questions 184

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

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Questions 185

Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

Options:

A.

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

B.

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

C.

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

D.

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

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Questions 186

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

Options:

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168 26.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

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Questions 187

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

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Questions 188

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

Options:

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

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Questions 189

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

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Questions 190

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 191

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 192

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

Options:

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

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Questions 193

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

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Questions 194

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Options:

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Buy Now
Questions 195

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

Options:

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

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Questions 196

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

Options:

A.

WPA2 + AES

B.

WPA + AES

C.

WEP

D.

WPA + TKIP

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Questions 197

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

Options:

A.

redundancy

B.

console

C.

distribution system

D.

service

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Questions 198

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

Options:

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

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Questions 199

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ASCII

B.

base64

C.

binary

D.

decimal

E.

hexadecimal

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Questions 200

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Options:

A.

FIFO

B.

WFQ

C.

PQ

D.

WRED

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Questions 201

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

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Questions 202

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

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Questions 203

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

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Questions 204

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

Options:

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

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Questions 205

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Options:

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

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Questions 206

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Questions 207

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

link-local

C.

unique local

D.

multicast

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Questions 208

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

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Questions 209

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

Options:

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Buy Now
Questions 210

Refer to the exhibit.

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

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Questions 211

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

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Questions 212

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

Options:

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

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Questions 213

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

Options:

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

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Questions 214

How is a configuration change made to a wireless AP in lightweight mode?

Options:

A.

SSH connection to the management IP of the AP

B.

EolP connection via the parent WLC

C.

CAPWAP/LWAPP connection via the parent WLC

D.

HTTPS connection directly to the out-of-band address of the AP

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Questions 215

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Buy Now
Questions 216

Which IPsec mode encapsulates the entire IP packet?

Options:

A.

tunnel

B.

Q-in-Q

C.

SSL VPN

D.

transport

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Questions 217

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 218

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interlace of the WLC.

E.

Configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

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Questions 219

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 220

Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?

Options:

A.

config sessions maxsessions 0

B.

config sessions timeout 0

C.

config serial timeout 0

D.

config serial timeout 9600

Buy Now
Questions 221

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

Options:

A.

encrypts data before sending between data resources

B.

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

C.

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

D.

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

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Questions 222

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

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Questions 223

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 224

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

Buy Now
Questions 225

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 226

What is a zero-day exploit?

Options:

A.

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SOL server.

Questions 227

What are two protocols within the IPsec suite? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

AH

B.

3DES

C.

ESP

D.

TLS

E.

AES

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Questions 228

Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.

Options:

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Questions 229

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

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Questions 230

Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?

Options:

A.

encryption and decryption for VPN link processing

B.

building route tables and updating the forwarding table

C.

changing the source or destination address during NAT operations

D.

encapsulation and decapsulation of packets in a data-link frame

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Questions 231

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

Options:

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

Buy Now
Questions 232

Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?

Options:

A.

channels 1, 5, and 10

B.

channels 1,6, and 11

C.

channels 1,5, and 11

D.

channels 1,6, and 10

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Questions 233

Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?

Options:

A.

BPDU guard

B.

loop guard

C.

portfast

D.

uplinkfast

Buy Now
Questions 234

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

Options:

A.

It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.

B.

It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.

C.

It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

D.

It places the port in the err-disabled slate after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.

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Questions 235

Which component controls and distributes physical resources for each virtual machine?

Options:

A.

OS

B.

hypervisor

C.

CPU

D.

physical enclosure

Buy Now
Questions 236

What does WPA3 provide in wireless networking?

Options:

A.

safeguards against brute force attacks with SAE

B.

optional Protected Management Frame negotiation

C.

backward compatibility with WPAand WPA2

D.

increased security and requirement of a complex configuration

Buy Now
Questions 237

Drag and drop the network topology architecture types from the left onto the corresponding function on the right. Not all architecture types are used.

Options:

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Questions 238

What is a characteristic of RSA?

Options:

A.

It uses preshared keys for encryption

B.

It requires both sides to have identical keys

C.

It is a private-key encryption algorithm

D.

It is a public-key cryptosystem

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Questions 239

Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.

Options:

A.

FlexConnect

B.

SE-Connect

C.

bridge

D.

local

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Questions 240

Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Only authentication records the duration of a user's connection.

B.

Only authentication supports user-activity audits.

C.

Only authentication provides supporting information for billing users.

D.

Only authentication challenges users for their credentials and returns a response.

E.

Only authentication validates "who you are."

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Questions 241

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

Options:

A.

northbound interface

B.

software virtual interface

C.

southbound interface

D.

tunnel Interface

Buy Now
Questions 242

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

B.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

D.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

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Questions 243

Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?

Options:

A.

config sessions maxsessions 0

B.

config sessions timeout 0

C.

config serial timeout 0

D.

config serial timeout 9600

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Questions 244

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the Lo2 interface on the New York router?

Options:

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

B.

ipv6 route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

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Questions 245

What is a function performed by a web server?

Options:

A.

provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

B.

send and retrieve email from client devices

C.

authenticate and authorize a user's identity

D.

securely store flies for FTP access

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Questions 246

Refer to the exhibit.

Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?

A)

B)

C)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

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Questions 247

Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

MDF-DC-4:08:E0:19: 08:B3:19

B.

MDF-DC-3:08:0E:18::1A:3C:9D

C.

MDF-DC-08:0E:18:22:05:97

D.

MDF-DC-1:DB:E:44:02:54:79

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Questions 248

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration. Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SW1(config)#enable secret ccnaTest123

B.

SW1(config)#username NEW secret R3mote123

C.

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15 SW1(config-line)#transport input ssh

D.

SW1(config)# crypto key generate rsa

E.

SW1(config)# interface f0/1 SW1(confif-if)# switchport mode trunk

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Questions 249

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

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Questions 250

Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?

Options:

A.

EtherChannel

B.

LAG

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 251

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

Options:

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

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Questions 252

Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria?

• Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters

• Auto detection MDi-X is unavailable

Options:

A.

straight-through

B.

rollover

C.

crossover

D.

console

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Questions 253

Which type of DNS record is used to specify the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient's domain?

Options:

A.

MX record

B.

TXT record

C.

A record

D.

SRV record

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Questions 254

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?

Options:

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

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Questions 255

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

Options:

A.

user training

B.

user awareness

C.

vulnerability verification

D.

physical access control

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Questions 256

Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

Options:

A.

ESX host

B.

resolver

C.

web

D.

file transfer

E.

authentication

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Questions 257

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right

Options:

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Questions 258

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.

Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 259

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 260

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 261

Refer the exhibit.

What is the cause of poor performance on router R19?

Options:

A.

excessive collisions

B.

speed and duplex mismatch

C.

port oversubscription

D.

excessive CRC errors

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Questions 262

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

Options:

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capability to receive packets in random order.

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Questions 263

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

Options:

A.

It continues to use a statically assigned IPv4 address

B.

It forces the DNS server to provide the same IPv4 address at each renewal.

C.

It requests the same IPv4 address when it renews its lease with the DHCP server.

D.

It prefers a pool of addresses when renewing the IPv4 host IP address

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Questions 264

Refer to the exhibit.

How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 265

When an access point is seeking to join wireless LAN controller, which message is sent to the AP- Manager interface?

Options:

A.

Discovery response

B.

DHCP request

C.

DHCP discover

D.

Discovery request

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Questions 266

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

Options:

A.

to rate-limit messages for different seventy levels from each device

B.

to set the severity of syslog messages from each device

C.

to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D.

to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

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Questions 267

Options:

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Questions 268

What is a feature of WPA?

Options:

A.

802.1x authentication

B.

preshared key

C.

TKIP/MIC encryption

D.

small Wi-Fi application

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Questions 269

What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?

Options:

A.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a loopback address, and an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a directly attached interface.

B.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address can be used throughout a company site or network, but an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

C.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is global, but the scope of an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

D.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local address is used throughout a company site or network.

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Questions 270

Which type of port is used to connect lo the wired network when an autonomous AP maps two VLANs to its WLANs?

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

EtherChannel

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 271

What is the function of "off-the-shell" switches in a controller-based network?

Options:

A.

providing a central view of the deployed network

B.

forwarding packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

setting packet-handling policies

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Questions 272

Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the matching HSRP slate on the right.

Options:

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Questions 273

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

B.

This is a root bridge.

C.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

D.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

E.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

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Questions 274

Refer to the exhibit.

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?

Options:

A.

Uncheck the Guest User check box

B.

Check the Guest User Role check box

C.

Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0

D.

Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value

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Questions 275

What is the function of northbound API?

Options:

A.

It upgrades software and restores files.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

D.

It provides a path between an SDN controller and network applications.

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Questions 276

A switch is forwarding a frame out of all interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

Multicast

C.

CDP

D.

Flooding

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Questions 277

Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

Options:

A.

Select PSK under Authentication Key Management

B.

Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security

C.

Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security

D.

Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption

E.

Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management

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Questions 278

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

Options:

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Questions 279

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure the link with these requirements:

• Consume as few IP addresses as possible.

• Leave at least two additional useable IP addresses for future growth.

Which set of configurations must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 280

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 281

What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?

Options:

A.

UCS-2

B.

UTF-8

C.

Hex

D.

GB18030

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Questions 282

Why implement VRRP?

Options:

A.

to provide end users with a virtual gateway in a multivendor network

B.

to leverage a weighting scheme to provide uninterrupted service

C.

to detect link failures without the overhead of Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

D.

to hand over to end users the autodiscovery of virtual gateways

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Questions 283

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 floating

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 10

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Questions 284

What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute data-plane functions.

B.

Controller-based networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and traditional networks distribute control-plane functions.

C.

Traditional networks centralize all important control-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute control-plane functions.

D.

Traditional networks centralize all important data-plane functions, and controller-based networks distribute data-plane functions.

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Questions 285

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport mode trunk

C.

switchport nonegotiate

D.

switchport mode dynamic auto

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Questions 286

Exhibit.

The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that was successfully tested. The Interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a 'down" status. What is the cause of this issue?

Options:

A.

The switches are configured with incompatible duplex settings.

B.

The distance between the two switches is not supported by Cut5.

C.

The speed settings on the switches are mismatched.

D.

The portfast command is missing from the configuration.

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Questions 287

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

Options:

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

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Questions 288

Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?

Options:

A.

If will choose the route with the longest match.O 100.100.100.100'32 (110/21) via 192.168.1.1. 00:05:57. EmernetO/1.

B.

It will always prefer the static route over dynamic routes and choose the routeS 100.100.0.0/16(1/0] via 192.168.4.1.

C.

It will choose the route with the highest metric.D 100.100.100.0/24 (90/435200) via 192.168.2.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/2.

D.

It will choose the route with the lowest metric,R 100.0.0.0/8 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/3.

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Questions 289

In which way does generative AI aid network simulations?

Options:

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Questions 290

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Maintains stateful transaction information

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses

D.

Filters based on a transport layer protocol

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Questions 291

What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?

Options:

A.

16

B.

32

C.

48

D.

64

Buy Now
Questions 292

Refer to the exhibit. The loopback IP of R3 has been learned via the two interfaces on R1. R1 is configured with a reference bandwidth of 10 Gbps. Based on the metric calculations, which next hop IP would be used for outgoing routing?

Options:

A.

10.12.0.5

B.

10.12.0.2

C.

10.12.0.1

D.

10.12.0.6

Buy Now
Questions 293

Which switch port configuration must be configured when connected to an AP running in FlexConnect mode, and the WLANs use flex local switching?

Options:

A.

access port with one VLAN

B.

trunk port with pruned VLANs

C.

Layer 3 port with an IP address

D.

tagged port with MAC Filtering enabled

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Questions 294

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 295

Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)

Options:

A.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

B.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to FTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

C.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

D.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

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Questions 296

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?

Options:

A.

84

B.

110

C.

192

D.

193

Buy Now
Questions 297

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

Options:

A.

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

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Questions 298

Why are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.

to uniquely identify clients to monitor their usage patterns

B.

to encrypt data to prevent excessive usage

C.

to contain embedded permissions that automatically expire

D.

to track the geographical location of each request

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Questions 299

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport private-vlan association host 5

B.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation negotiate

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan add 5

D.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk pruning vlan add 5

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Questions 300

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

Options:

A.

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

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Questions 301

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID "Office_WLan" has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?

Options:

A.

There is a strong mutual authentication used between NAC and the network devices using x.509 standard.

B.

There is an extra layer of security that ensures only authorized devices with known MAC addresses connect to the network.

C.

There is a robust security mechanism configured to protect against various Layer 2 and Layer 3 attacks.

D.

There is Galois cache algorithm configured that provides strong encryption and authentication.

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Questions 302

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.249.210.56/25 [90/6144] via G0/15

10.249.210.56/25 [90/45053] via G0/13

10.249.210.56/25 [110/3693] via G0/16

10.249.210.56/25 [110/360] via G0/12

Options:

A.

G0/16

B.

G0/15

C.

G0/13

D.

G0/12

Buy Now
Questions 303

What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?

Options:

A.

provides protection against spyware

B.

eliminates network piggybacking

C.

associates a name to a wireless network

D.

allows easy file sharing between endpoints

Buy Now
Questions 304

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Options:

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Questions 305

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

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Questions 306

What is a function of Layer 3 switches?

Options:

A.

They route traffic between devices in different VLANs.

B.

They forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses.

C.

They move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses.

D.

They transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively.

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Questions 307

A network security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Software firewall enabled on all PCs

C.

Email system patches

D.

User awareness training

Buy Now
Questions 308

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

Options:

A.

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

Buy Now
Questions 309

What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?

Options:

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

Buy Now
Questions 310

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

Options:

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

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Questions 311

Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate, register, and accept terms before accessing the internet?

Options:

A.

Whole Home

B.

Hotspot

C.

One-Click

D.

Enhanced Bluetooth

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Questions 312

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

Options:

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

Buy Now
Questions 313

Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.2

B.

10.10.2.2

C.

10.10.3.2

D.

10.10.4.2

Buy Now
Questions 314

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

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Questions 315

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Options:

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Questions 316

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

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Questions 317

Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST

C.

OpFlex

D.

SOAP

E.

NETCONF

Buy Now
Questions 318

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

Options:

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

Buy Now
Questions 319

What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP tracks segments being transmitted or received by assigning segment numbers, and UDP adjusts data flow according to network conditions.

B.

TCP establishes a connection with the device on the other end before transferring, and UDP transfers without establishing a connection.

C.

TCP sends data at a constant rate with error checking on upper protocol layers, and UDP provides error-checking and sequencing.

D.

TCP immediately transmits data without waiting for a handshake, and UDP awaits a response from the receiver before sending additional data.

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Questions 320

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 321

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 322

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the CAM table

C.

sends the frame back to the source to verify availability

D.

drops received MAC addresses not listed in the address table

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Questions 323

Refer to the exhibit.

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

Options:

A.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

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Questions 324

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

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Questions 325

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

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Questions 326

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group.

B.

Increases security on the management VLAN.

C.

Rewrites the source and destination MAC address.

D.

Associates the MAC address with the port on which it is received.

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Questions 327

Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

distribution

B.

service

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual

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Questions 328

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

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Questions 329

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

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Questions 330

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addresses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP address

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Questions 331

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

Options:

A.

via 10.0.4.2

B.

via 10.0.0.2

C.

via FastEthernet0/1

D.

via FastEthernet1/1

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Questions 332

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

Options:

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

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Questions 333

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 334

What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?

Options:

A.

SDN security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS, and traditional networking security policies are created based on telemetry data.

B.

SDN exposes an API to configure locally per device for security policies, and traditional networking uses northbound API for network admin interface for configuring security policies.

C.

SDN creates a unified control point making security policies consistent across all devices, and traditional networking must be configured device by device, leaving room for error.

D.

SDN devices communicate with each other to establish a security policy, and in traditional networking, devices communicate upstream to a central location to establish a security policy.

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Questions 335

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

Options:

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

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Questions 336

An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.224

B.

255.255.255.248

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.252

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Questions 337

Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?

Options:

A.

cloud computing

B.

virtualization

C.

application hosting

D.

containers

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Questions 338

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

Options:

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

queueing

C.

bad NIC

D.

broadcast storm

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Questions 339

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

Options:

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

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Questions 340

What is represented in line 3 within this JSON schema?

Options:

A.

object

B.

key

C.

array

D.

value

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Questions 341

What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

Identifying permissions for end users using three authentication factors

B.

Authenticating and authorizing end users using two authentication factors

C.

Confirming end-user identity using two or more authentication factors

D.

Verifying end-user access permissions using two authentication factors

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Questions 342

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

Options:

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

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Questions 343

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

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Questions 344

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC address storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

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Questions 345

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

Options:

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

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Questions 346

Refer to the exhibit.

Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 347

Why would a network administrator implement the HSRP protocol?

Options:

A.

To provide network redundancy in the case of a router failure

B.

To use an open standard protocol that is configured on Cisco and third-party routers

C.

To allow hosts in a network to use the same default gateway virtual IP when load-balancing traffic

D.

To allow clients to be configured with multiple default gateway IPs

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Questions 348

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Options:

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Questions 349

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

Options:

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

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Questions 350

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

Options:

A.

The domain name server is unreachable.

B.

LAN and WAN network segments are different.

C.

IP address assignment is incorrect.

D.

The default gateway should be the first usable IP address.

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Questions 351

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

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Questions 352

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 353

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

Options:

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

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Questions 354

Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?

Options:

A.

Run the ipconfig command on client A and ensure that the IP address is within the host range of 10.0.0.1 - 10.0.255.254.

B.

Run the ifconfig command on client A to confirm that its IP and subnet mask fall within 255.254.0.0.

C.

Run the ipconfig command on client A to confirm that the correct 10.0.0.1 default gateway is used.

D.

Run the ifconfig command on client A to confirm that the subnet mask is set to 255.255.128.0.

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Questions 355

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 356

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.

B.

Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.

C.

Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

D.

Enable the WPA Policy.

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Questions 357

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

Forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

C.

Overwrites the known source MAC address in the address table

D.

Protects against denial of service attacks

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Questions 358

Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

Options:

A.

Informational

B.

debugging

C.

alerts

D.

notifications

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Questions 359

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.

Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active

B.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode active

C.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode on

D.

switchport switchport mode trunk

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1
Last Update: Nov 4, 2025
Questions: 1197
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