SIE Sample Questions Answers

The federal funds rate, which is the interest rate banks charge each other for overnight loans, changes frequently due to daily fluctuations in bank reserves and market conditions.

D is correct as it is the most sensitive to short-term market forces.

A, B, and C change less frequently.

Coverdell Education Savings Accounts (ESAs) require that all funds be distributed by the time the beneficiary reaches 30 years old. If the funds are not used for qualified educational expenses, they may be subject to taxes and penalties.

B is correct because funds must be distributed by age 30 unless transferred to another eligible family member.

A is incorrect as age 21 is not relevant for Coverdell ESAs.

C is incorrect because age 59 ½ applies to retirement accounts like IRAs.

D is incorrect because there is a distribution deadline for Coverdell accounts.

Step by Step Explanation:

Warrants: Are often issued alongside fixed-income securities, such as bonds, to enhance their appeal to investors. Warrants give the holder the right to purchase company stock at a specific price in the future.

Incorrect Options:

Options: Not typically bundled with fixed-income securities.

Common and Preferred Stock: Usually issued separately, not as part of a package with bonds.

Step by Step Explanation:

Short Sale Definition: Involves selling borrowed securities with the expectation of repurchasing them at a lower price.

Investor Ownership: Short sales do not involve securities already owned by the seller.

Other Options: None of the other choices accurately define a short sale.

Open-end mutual funds do not trade on secondary markets. Instead, shares are continuously issued or redeemed by the fund at the net asset value (NAV), calculated at the market close.

D is correct because investors purchase and redeem shares directly through the fund or authorized brokers.

A is incorrect because mutual funds do not have a predetermined dissolution date.

B is incorrect because mutual fund shares are priced at the NAV calculated once daily after the market closes.

C is incorrect because secondary market trading applies to closed-end funds and ETFs, not open-end mutual funds.

When interest rates rise, the price of fixed-rate corporate bonds falls because the bond's coupon payments become less attractive compared to new bonds issued at higher rates.

D is correct as bond prices move inversely to interest rates.

A is incorrect because bond prices fluctuate with interest rate changes.

B is incorrect because bond prices revert to par only at maturity.

C is incorrect because prices do not appreciate when rates rise.

The quote indicates that the market maker is willing to buy 500 shares at $39.05 (bid) and sell 1,000 shares at $39.15 (ask). Market makers are required to honor their quoted size for orders that fall within their bid/ask prices.

D is correct because the market maker is obligated to sell at least 1,000 shares at $39.15 as it falls within the quoted size and price.

B is incorrect because the bid is at $39.05, not $39.00.

C is incorrect because $39.10 does not match the ask price.

A is invalid as a stop order would not activate at $39.00.

Step by Step Explanation:

Right of Accumulation: Allows an investor to combine the value of existing investments within the same fund family to qualify for a breakpoint (reduced sales charge) on new purchases.

Current Holdings: $80,000

New Purchase: $50,000

Total: $130,000, qualifying for the $100,000 breakpoint.

Incorrect Options:

B: Contributions from all funds within the same family can be aggregated.

C: A new letter of intent is unnecessary; right of accumulation applies automatically.

D: Discounts apply immediately, not retroactively.

Step by Step Explanation:

ETF Expense Ratios: ETFs generally have lower expense ratios compared to mutual funds due to their passive management style.

Incorrect Options:

A: ETFs do not have sales loads; they are traded like stocks.

B: ETFs can be purchased on margin, like other equities.

C: ETFs are traded throughout the day at market prices, not NAV.

Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are time deposit accounts issued by banks, offering fixed interest rates for a specified term. CDs are insured by the FDIC up to $250,000 per depositor, but the issuing entity is the bank itself.

B is correct because banks issue CDs.

A is incorrect because the FDIC insures CDs but does not issue them.

C is incorrect because broker-dealers may facilitate the purchase of CDs but do not issue them.

D is incorrect because the Federal Reserve does not issue CDs; it manages monetary policy.

A pass-through entity does not pay corporate income taxes; instead, income is passed to owners, who report it on their individual tax returns.

A is correct because C corporations are not pass-through entities; they pay corporate taxes.

B, C, and D are all pass-through entities for tax purposes.

The annual interest on a bond is calculated based on the coupon rate and the bond’s par value.

Coupon rate = 4.0%.

Annual interest = $10,000 (par value) × 4.0% = $400.

A is correct because the coupon rate determines the annual interest.

B, C, and D are incorrect because they reflect incorrect calculations. The current yield, YTM, and tax-equivalent yield do not affect the bond’s fixed coupon payments.

Step by Step Explanation:

Interest Rate Risk: Treasury securities are sensitive to changes in interest rates. When rates rise, Treasury prices fall, exposing investors to price risk.

Incorrect Options:

Credit Risk: Virtually nonexistent for Treasuries, as they are backed by the U.S. government.

Liquidity Risk: Treasuries are highly liquid.

Prepayment Risk: Applies to mortgage-backed securities, not Treasuries.

XYZ bonds have a yield higher than the coupon rate, indicating that their market price has decreased due to concerns about the issuer's creditworthiness.

A is correct because the high yield suggests elevated credit risk.

B is incorrect because domestic utility companies are unlikely to face political risk.

C is irrelevant as the bonds are denominated in U.S. dollars.

D is incorrect as prepayment risk is associated with callable bonds, not noncallable bonds.

Step by Step Explanation:

Reverse Split Calculation: A 1-for-2 reverse split reduces the number of shares by half while doubling the price per share.

Pre-Split Holdings: 100 shares at $5.00 = $500.

Post-Split Holdings: 50 shares at $10.00 = $500.

Incorrect Options: The total value remains unchanged; only the number of shares and price per share adjust.

Fundamental analysis focuses on evaluating a company’s financial health and potential for growth by analyzing its financial statements, such as the income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement.

C is correct because financial statements provide the data necessary for fundamental analysis.

A and B are incorrect because chart patterns and moving averages are tools of technical analysis, not fundamental analysis.

D is incorrect because resistance and support levels are also part of technical analysis.

FINRA Rule 4511 requires member firms to retain records, including electronic communications, in a non-rewriteable, non-erasable format (often referred to as WORM: Write Once, Read Many). This ensures that records cannot be altered or deleted once stored.

D is correct because firms must store records in a tamper-proof format.

A, B, and C are incorrect because these formats do not guarantee compliance with the tamper-proof requirements set forth by FINRA and the SEC.

Step by Step Explanation:

Regular-Way Settlement: For equity securities, settlement occurs on a T+2 basis, meaning two business days after the trade date.

Calculation:

Trade Date (T): Thursday, August 2.

T+2 Settlement: Excludes weekends, so settlement falls on Monday, August 6.

Incorrect Options:

A: Reflects T+1, not the correct settlement cycle.

C & D: Extend beyond the standard T+2 cycle.

Step by Step Explanation:

Government Bond Funds: Invest in government-backed securities, but the value of the fund itself is not guaranteed by the government, as these funds are subject to market risks.

Incorrect Options:

A: Diversification depends on the fund’s investment strategy.

B: Interest/dividend payments may fluctuate.

C: If interest rates fall, NAVs typically rise, not drop.

In cumulative voting, shareholders can allocate all their votes to a single candidate. The total number of votes is calculated by multiplying the number of shares owned by the number of seats available:

Total votes = 100 shares × 10 seats = 1,000 votes.

The investor can allocate all votes to one candidate.

C is correct because cumulative voting allows all votes to be concentrated.

Step by Step Explanation:

Trust Accounts: Provide the account owner (trustee) full control over distributions and investment decisions. Suitable for complex estate planning needs.

Incorrect Options:

UTMA: Transfers control to the minor upon reaching the age of majority.

529 Plan: Used for educational savings, with limited control over distributions.

CD: A fixed-term deposit, not an account type for managing distributions.

Step by Step Explanation:

Open-End Mutual Funds: Shares are purchased directly from the fund or its underwriter at the current Net Asset Value (NAV), plus any applicable sales charges.

Custodian: Holds the fund's assets but does not sell shares.

NYSE and Shareholders: Open-end funds do not trade on exchanges or between individual shareholders.

Step by Step Explanation:

Negotiated Offering: Occurs when the issuer directly selects an underwriter and negotiates terms. Common in municipal bond issuances.

Incorrect Options:

A: Follow-on offerings apply to subsequent issuances of equity securities.

C: Competitive offerings involve multiple underwriters submitting bids.

D: Best-efforts offerings do not guarantee the sale of all securities.

Buying a call option gives the investor the right to purchase the stock at a fixed price (strike price). If the stock’s price rises significantly, the value of the call option increases, allowing the investor to profit.

B is correct because a call option profits directly from a stock price increase.

A is incorrect because a put option profits from a stock price decline.

C and D are incorrect because selling options limits profit potential and exposes the seller to significant risk if the stock moves unfavorably.

In a tenants in common account, each owner has a distinct percentage of ownership. Upon the death of one owner, their share does not transfer to the surviving owner(s); instead, it becomes part of the deceased’s estate.

C is correct because ownership is divided, and the deceased’s share passes to their estate.

A is incorrect because partnerships have different agreements governing ownership transitions.

B is incorrect because trust corporations are governed by trust agreements, not estate processes.

D is incorrect because JTWROS accounts pass ownership directly to the surviving account holder(s).

When an economy operates near full capacity, additional money in circulation leads to inflation, as demand exceeds the economy’s ability to increase supply.

B is correct because inflation is the primary impact when supply cannot keep up with excess demand.

A is incorrect because output does not significantly increase when capacity is already maximized.

C is incorrect because velocity measures the rate at which money circulates, not the impact of oversupply.

D is incorrect as unemployment is already low when the economy is at full capacity.

Step by Step Explanation:

Publicly Traded Limited Partnerships (PTPs): Represent ownership stakes, which categorize them as equity securities. PTPs often involve sectors like real estate or energy.

Incorrect Options:

A: Mutual funds are pooled investment vehicles, not partnerships.

C: Fixed-income securities are debt instruments like bonds.

D: Derivatives include options or futures, not ownership stakes.

Step by Step Explanation:

Escalation Requirement: The RR must promptly notify their supervisor or compliance department about the customer’s complaint as required by FINRA rules. Supervisors handle customer complaints according to firm procedures.

Incorrect Options:

B: Reimbursing the customer is not permissible without firm approval and may create compliance issues.

C: Complaints requiring Form U4 updates involve specific allegations such as fraud, not general dissatisfaction.

D: The RR should not contact FINRA directly; the firm will handle communications.

Each option contract represents 100 shares. A covered call involves selling a call option while holding an equivalent number of shares to deliver if the option is exercised.

The customer owns 1,000 shares.

Since 1 contract = 100 shares, the maximum number of contracts the customer can sell is:1,000 shares ÷ 100 shares/contract = 10 contracts.

B is correct because selling 10 contracts corresponds to 1,000 shares, fully covering the position.

Step by Step Explanation:

Margin Accounts: Allow investors to borrow funds to purchase securities, with the securities serving as collateral for the loan.

Cash Accounts: Require full payment for securities purchased.

IRAs: Do not permit borrowing due to their tax-advantaged status.

DVP/RVP: Settlement mechanisms, not account types for borrowing.

Step by Step Explanation:

Backing Away: Refers to the failure of a market maker to honor a firm quote when a customer attempts to trade at that price. It is a violation of market rules.

Incorrect Options:

Freeriding: Involves selling securities before paying for them in a cash account.

Interpositioning: Involves unnecessary intermediaries in trades, which can harm customers.

Market Manipulation: Covers a range of deceptive practices, such as wash trading or spoofing, not specific to honoring quotes.

Step by Step Explanation:

DVP Process: Ensures that payment occurs simultaneously with the delivery of securities, mitigating counterparty risk. Cash payment is made before or at the time of delivery.

Incorrect Options:

A: The T+5 timeline is not standard for DVP.

C: Payment must occur at delivery, not after.

D: Settlement date agreements with the issuer are irrelevant for DVP.

Step by Step Explanation:

Telemarketing Rules (FINRA Rule 3230): Require firms to check the National Do Not Call Registry before contacting individuals, even if those individuals provide their contact information voluntarily.

Incorrect Options:

A: Approval isn’t required for individual follow-ups; compliance with the registry is.

B: While calls must be limited to appropriate hours, the registry check is still mandatory.

C: Written consent does not override the registry requirement.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 1122: Requires that registered representatives update their residential address with FINRA for two years post-termination.

Purpose: This ensures accurate records for potential regulatory inquiries during the statutory two-year period when a terminated individual remains subject to FINRA’s jurisdiction.

Step by Step Explanation:

FINRA Rule 3210: Requires registered representatives to obtain written consent from their employing broker-dealer before opening accounts at other financial institutions if securities transactions will occur.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and C: These accounts are exempt because they do not involve direct securities transactions requiring monitoring.

The Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) protects customers if a broker-dealer fails due to insolvency. Coverage applies to cash and securities in customer accounts, up to $500,000 total, including $250,000 for cash.

A is correct because SIPC’s purpose is to protect against losses arising from a broker-dealer’s insolvency.

B is incorrect because SIPC does not guarantee investment performance.

C is incorrect because SIPC does not cover market losses.

D is incorrect because futures contracts are not covered under SIPC.

Step by Step Explanation:

ADRs: Represent foreign securities but are issued in the U.S. and quoted in U.S. dollars, making them easier for American investors to trade.

Incorrect Options:

B: ADRs are quoted in U.S. dollars, not foreign currencies.

C & D: ADRs represent foreign securities held by U.S. banks, not foreign banks.

Step by Step Explanation:

Regulatory Element Requirement: Newly registered persons must complete the Continuing Education (CE) Regulatory Element on the second anniversary of their initial registration and every three years thereafter.

Incorrect Options:

A: The requirement begins on the second anniversary, not the following calendar year.

D: The cycle is every three years, not five.

Purchasing a put option allows the customer to sell the stock at a predetermined price (the strike price) if the share price declines. This strategy protects against downside risk while maintaining upside potential.

C is correct because a put acts as insurance, locking in a minimum sale price.

A is incorrect because selling a put exposes the investor to additional risk if the stock declines.

B is incorrect because selling a call generates income but does not protect against downside risk.

D is incorrect because purchasing a call is a bullish strategy unrelated to protecting existing positions.

Step by Step Explanation:

MSRB Rule G-10: Requires municipal securities dealers to notify customers annually about the availability of the MSRB investor brochure, which explains investor protections and complaint filing procedures.

Incorrect Options:

A and B: Address and financial standing are not specifically required disclosures.

C: FINRA violations are not a required disclosure under MSRB rules.

An option’s premium consists of intrinsic value and time value:

Intrinsic value = Current stock price - Strike price = $40 - $35 = $5.

Time value = Total premium - Intrinsic value = $7 - $5 = $2.

B is correct because $2 represents the time value.

A, C, and D are incorrect because they miscalculate the time value based on the option's total premium.

The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) is responsible for issuing and guaranteeing the performance of listed options contracts, including Long-term Equity Anticipation Securities (LEAPS), which are long-term options.

D is correct because LEAPS are a type of listed options contract cleared by the OCC.

A is incorrect because listed stocks are not options contracts.

B is incorrect because over-the-counter bonds are not cleared by the OCC.

C is incorrect because ETFs are not options, though ETF options may be cleared by the OCC.

Step by Step Explanation:

Settlement of the Transaction: Refers to the finalization of a trade, where the buyer pays for the securities, and the seller delivers them. For most securities, regular-way settlement occurs T+2 (trade date plus two business days).

Incorrect Options:

Clearing the Trade: Refers to matching trade details to prepare for settlement.

DVP Transactions: A specific type of settlement involving simultaneous payment and delivery, often used for institutional clients.

Corporate Action: Refers to events like stock splits or dividend declarations.

Step by Step Explanation:

Nonpublic Information: A customer’s net worth is nonpublic personal information that requires confidentiality under Regulation S-P.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and D: Names, addresses, and phone numbers may be public unless linked to specific financial or personal details.

Step by Step Explanation:

Variable Life Insurance: The cash value depends on the performance of the underlying investment options.

Fluctuating Market Conditions: Since the cash value is linked to market performance, fluctuations directly impact its value.

Beneficiary/Death Benefit Changes: These do not directly impact the cash value unless they involve additional costs or changes to premiums.

Step by Step Explanation:

Summary Prospectus Content: Must include key information such as the fund’s investment objectives, risks, fees, and past performance. This helps investors make informed decisions.

Incorrect Options:

A: Projected returns are speculative and not included in the prospectus.

C & D: Detailed portfolio holdings and control persons are included in the full prospectus, not the summary.

Accounts held individually are subject to probate, which is the legal process of administering the decedent’s estate. Probate determines the distribution of assets according to the deceased’s will or state intestacy laws.

A is correct because individual accounts require probate to transfer assets.

B is incorrect because irrevocable trusts bypass probate.

C is incorrect because TOD accounts allow direct transfer of assets to named beneficiaries without probate.

D is incorrect because JTWROS accounts transfer ownership to the surviving account holder automatically.

Step by Step Explanation:

Cost Basis in Reverse Split: The total cost basis remains unchanged in a reverse stock split. Only the number of shares and price per share adjust.

Pre-Split: 1,000 shares at $5 each = $5,000.

Post-Split: 200 shares at $25 each = $5,000.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and D: Do not reflect the unchanged total cost basis.