C11 Sample Questions Answers

Asurety bondis a three-party contract in which the surety guarantees the performance of a contractor (principal) for the benefit of a third party (obligee). In construction, a developer may require a contractor to post aperformance bondensuring the project will be completed as agreed. This is the classic example of suretyship.

Option A is banking, not surety.

Option B is liability insurance, not a three-party guarantee.

Option D involves marine or cargo insurance, not a performance guarantee.

Thus,Ccorrectly describes a surety situation.

In contract law,considerationrefers to the exchange of something of value between parties. It is a necessary element for forming a legally binding insurance contract. In insurance, the insurer promises to indemnify the insured in exchange for thepremium—this exchange constitutes consideration.

OptionAis the only scenario demonstrating a clearbargained-for exchange. Jennifer gives up a painting of value, and Shania provides monetary payment. Even though the price is reduced, consideration still exists because each party is giving something of legal value.

Option B shows no exchange—only contemplation of future pricing.

Option C shows no contract formed, because the offer was not accepted.

Option D is a return/refund scenario, not an exchange forming a new contract.

Thus,Ais the best example of consideration.

Risk mitigation refers to reducing the frequency or severity of potential losses. A first-time homeowner can mitigate risk by taking proactive measures such as installing smoke alarms, securing doors and windows, maintaining the property, or eliminating hazards. These actions directly decrease the homeowner’s volume of risk by reducing the probability of a loss or limiting its potential impact.

Option A—purchasing insurance—is not risk mitigation; it is risk transfer, where the financial consequences of loss are shifted to an insurer. Insurance does not reduce the likelihood of loss; it only provides compensation after loss.

Option B is the opposite of mitigation.

Option D is irrelevant to risk management.

Thus, the correct answer is C: Decrease their volume of risk.

AGuaranteed Replacement Cost (GRC)clause is a special provision in homeowners’ insurance that ensures the insurer will pay thefull cost to rebuild or repairthe dwellingeven if the loss exceeds the stated policy limit, provided all policy conditions are met (such as insuring to value and notifying the insurer of changes to the building).

This clause protects homeowners from unexpected increases in construction costs due to inflation, labour shortages, or material price spikes. The insurer guarantees complete reconstruction of the home, not merely up to policy limits.

Option A is not a recognized policy clause.

Option B (total replacement cost clause) is not the standard industry term.

Option C (pure restitution clause) does not exist in homeowners insurance terminology.

The only accurate clause that obligates the insurer to pay above policy limits is theGuaranteed Replacement Cost clause.

Under Canadian privacy legislation (such as PIPEDA), personal information may only be used for the specific purpose for which it was originally collected unless the client provides informed consent for additional use. Insurance intermediaries must therefore obtain explicit permission from the client before using or disclosing their information for any new purpose, such as marketing, cross-selling, or sharing data with third-party providers.

Option B—simply notifying the client—is insufficient without consent. Option C is incorrect, as the ombudsperson deals with complaints, not privacy approvals. Option D is incorrect because privacy officers do not grant permissions; the law requires consent from the individual, not from government officials.

Since consent is central to privacy compliance in insurance operations, the intermediary must obtain permission from the client, making A the correct answer.

Apolicyis a legal contract issued by theinsurer, not the broker and not the policyholder. Therefore, the individuals who sign the policy are usually the insurer’s authorized signing officers.

These are typically:

The CEO or President, and

Another authorized senior officer, such as the Administrative Manager or Underwriting Officer.

In the table:

Cathy(CEO) is an authorized signer.

Alan(Administrative Manager) is also an authorized insurer representative.

The insured (Simone) doesnotsign the actual policy document; their signature is not required for the policy to be valid. The broker (Denis) also doesnotsign policies; he facilitates placement but is not a party to the contract.

Thus, the correct pair isAlan and Cathy.

New business clients often want to present themselves aslow-riskto secure better premium rates. As a result, they may be cautious about reporting small claims or may practice better loss prevention—at least initially. This can make new business perform better from a loss-ratio perspective.

However,renewal clients may become less cautiousover time or more willing to submit smaller claims once they are already insured. Additionally, insurers sometimes relax underwriting scrutiny on renewals compared to new applications, which can further widen performance differences.

Option A (automated renewals) does not inherently affect claims behaviour.

Option B is incorrect—renewal underwriting is typicallyless strict, not more.

Option C is false; reinsurance availability does not differ based on new vs. renewal status.

Thus, the factor most likely contributing to poorer renewal performance isD: New business clients limit claims to keep premiums low, improving their initial results relative to renewals.

If you haveQuestions 85 onward, feel free to send them!

The Institute for Catastrophic Loss Reduction (ICLR) is a research-based organization supported by the Canadian property and casualty insurance industry. Its mission is to reduce the loss of life and property caused by natural hazards by promoting scientifically grounded mitigation strategies. One of its central goals is to encourage the development of resilient buildings and communities by advocating for improved building codes, retrofitting standards, and construction methods that reduce vulnerability to severe weather events such as hurricanes, floods, wildfires, and earthquakes.

Options A and B do not reflect the ICLR's mandate; the organization does not focus on personal weather prediction or creating mandatory evacuation procedures. Option C describes a risk-financing mechanism, not risk reduction. ICLR’s true focus is loss prevention and mitigation, specifically through cost-effective, research-supported construction and community planning measures. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Unearned premium is the portion of the premium that corresponds to the period of insurance not yet elapsed. When an insured prepays a premium (often for a 12-month policy), the insurer earns that premium gradually over the policy term as time passes. Any amount relating to future coverage—coverage the insurer has not yet provided—is considered unearned premium. It represents a liability on the insurer’s balance sheet because if the policy is cancelled, the insurer must refund the unearned portion to the insured, subject to policy terms.

Option A is the opposite: that describes earned premium, not unearned premium. Option B is incorrect because unearned premium is unrelated to claims payments; it is a time-based accounting concept. Option D is incorrect because broker commissions are not part of earned or unearned premium calculations; they are an expense paid out of the premium.

Therefore, the correct definition is C: the premium for the remaining period of insurance that has not yet passed.

Pollution exposures—especially from oil refinery operations—arehigh-severity, high-complexity risks. Standard property and liability policiestypically exclude pollution, except for sudden and accidental events. Pollution arising from new drilling methods is considered aspecialized environmental liabilityand often requirescustomized financial transfer mechanisms.

Anon-insurance loss-financing transfer agreement(also called a contractual risk transfer or financial risk transfer mechanism) allows the company to shift the financial consequences of pollution losses to another entity or through non-traditional insurance structures (e.g., environmental impairment liability contracts, captive agreements, or specialized financial instruments). This is the most appropriate and realistic way to transfer complex pollution exposures.

Option A (retain the risk) is unsafe due to catastrophic loss potential.

Option B (surety bond) guarantees performance, not pollution losses.

Option D is incorrect because standard policiesdo not coverthis exposure.

Thus the best option isC.

Pre-loss objectives in risk management are goals an organization aims to achievebeforeany loss occurs. These objectives focus on minimizing the frequency and severity of losses, ensuring preparedness, and maintaining organizational functionality.

Operational continuityis a key pre-loss objective because it emphasizes having systems, controls, and procedures in place to ensure that operations run smoothly—even when risk exposures are present. This includes safety programs, maintenance schedules, compliance measures, and contingency planning. Operational continuity ensures the business can withstand or avoid disruptions.

Option A (external obligations) is vague and not formally defined as a risk management objective.

Option B (sustained growth) and D (business development) arebusiness goals, not pre-loss risk management objectives.

Thus, the correct answer isC: Operational continuity.

Prescription refers to the legally defined period during which an insured is permitted to initiate legal action to enforce a claim under the insurance contract. Once the prescriptive period expires, the insured loses the legal right to pursue the claim, even if the claim itself is otherwise valid. This protects insurers from indefinite liability and encourages timely reporting and settlement of claims.

A waiver is the voluntary relinquishment of a known right. A release is a document signed by the insured surrendering further claims, usually after settlement. A non-waiver agreement preserves the insurer’s right to investigate a claim without admitting liability. None of these terms relate to the legal time limit for bringing an action. Therefore, the correct term describing the time frame for commencing legal proceedings is prescription.

In the structure of reinsurance practices explained inPrinciples and Practice of Insurance, aretrocessionaireis the reinsurer that accepts risk from another reinsurer. This occurs through a process calledretrocession, where a reinsurer (the retrocedent) transfers a portion of its assumed risk to another reinsurer to further spread exposure and maintain solvency stability.

The terminology is important:

Theprimary insurerissues the original policy to the insured.

Thereinsurer(cessionaire) accepts risk from the primary insurer.

When that reinsurer then cedes part of the risk again, the receiving party is theretrocessionaire.

Retrocession is essential in risk-management frameworks because it allows reinsurers to diversify exposures and avoid concentration risks from catastrophic events. Therefore, the correct term for the second reinsurer isC. Retrocessionaire.

Insurance contracts are built on the principle of utmost good faith, meaning applicants must disclose all material facts that could influence the insurer’s decision to accept the risk or determine the premium. Failing to mention a material fact—such as the home being unoccupied for long periods—is considered non-disclosure. Unoccupancy increases the risk of vandalism, frozen pipes, fire severity, and delayed emergency response, all of which affect underwriting decisions.

Option A, negligence, refers to failure to act with reasonable care, not failure to disclose.

Option C, breach of warranty, applies only after a policy is in force and a condition guaranteed to be true is violated.

Option D, discharge of contract, refers to cancellation or completion of contractual obligations.

Since the issue arises during the application stage and involves withholding a material fact, the correct classification is non-disclosure.

Mirroringis a communication technique used to build rapport by subtly matching another person’s body language, tone, gestures, or pace of speech. It is widely used in sales, client consultations, and negotiations. When done professionally and subtly, mirroring helps clients feel understood and creates psychological comfort, making it easier to discuss needs and gather accurate underwriting information.

Option B, copycatting, implies obvious or exaggerated imitation and is not a recognized professional communication method. Option C, transparency, refers to openness and honesty, not physical or behavioural alignment. Option D, open listening, is active listening—important, but unrelated to mirroring physical actions.

Since Patrice is deliberatelyperforming similar actionsto his client, he is engaging inmirroring, makingAthe correct answer.

One of the fundamental principles of insurance rating is that thepremium charged must accurately reflect the level of riskbeing insured. This principle ensures fairness and financial stability: individuals or businesses presenting a higher probability of loss or greater potential severity must payhigher premiums, while lower-risk policyholders pay less. This is essential because insurers must collect sufficient funds to cover expected claims, expenses, and maintain solvency.

Option B describes the pooling of funds, which is part of how insurance works but does not address how premiums are determined.

Option C relates to the general purpose of insurance, not premium adequacy.

Option D loosely refers to indemnification, not rating methodology.

Therefore, the only statement that accurately reflects the idea that premiums must be commensurate with the risk isA.

Thepure premiumrepresents theexpected loss costper exposure unit. It is calculated as:

Pure Premium=Probability of Loss×Severity of Loss\text{Pure Premium} = \text{Probability of Loss} \times \text{Severity of Loss}Pure Premium=Probability of Loss×Severity of Loss

Here:

Probability of loss = 1 in 5 homes =0.20

Severity (loss amount) =$50,000

0.20×50,000=10,0000.20 \times 50,000 = 10,0000.20×50,000=10,000

But here is the key detail: one loss of $50,000 spread overfive homesmeans:

50,0005=10,000\frac{50,000}{5} = 10,000550,000​=10,000

But the answer choices do not include $10,000 except option C, yet the correct pure premium per homeownerwith equal distribution per yearequals:

$10,000 per home per year

Thus the correct answer isC: $10,000.

A stock insurance company operates with the same capital structure as other conventional for-profit corporations. Ownership is represented by shares of stock, held by shareholders who supply capital and expect a return on investment. Profits are distributed as dividends or reinvested into the company. This structure aligns closely with traditional corporate financial frameworks in Canadian commerce.

Option B, a captive company, is owned by a parent business to insure its own risks—not structured like a general capital corporation. Option C, a co-operative company, is owned by its policyholders or members, not shareholders. Option D (factory mutual company) refers to a mutual insurer owned by its policyholders and requiring high loss-prevention standards.

Thus, the only insurer type that mirrors the capital structure of typical Canadian corporate enterprises is the stock company, making A correct.

The Canadian Insurance Claims Managers Association (CICMA) is a professional body composed of senior claims managers across the Canadian insurance industry. Its principal purpose is to promote high ethical standards, professionalism, fairness, and integrity in claims handling. CICMA supports education, networking, and the sharing of best practices to ensure consistency and ethical conduct across insurers.

Option A is incorrect because CICMA does not evaluate or adjudicate claims; individual insurers and provincial accident benefit systems handle those tasks. Option B is incorrect because fraud detection is handled by insurers and sometimes by the Insurance Bureau of Canada (IBC). Option C is unrelated—vehicle damageability research is conducted by organizations such as the Insurance Institute for Highway Safety or similar bodies.

CICMA’s work emphasizes ethics, professional development, and claims leadership, which align directly with option D.

Comprehensive Explanation (150–250 words):

In anexcess of loss (non-proportional) reinsurance contract, the reinsurer pays only when the lossexceeds the primary insurer’s retention, known as thepriorityorattachment point. In this question, the priority is$80,000. This means reinsurance doesnotrespond unless the loss exceeds $80,000.

Here, the actual loss is$60,000, which isbelowthe attachment point. Because the loss never reaches the $80,000 threshold, the reinsurer owesnothing. Theentire lossremains the responsibility of the primary insurer.

The reinsurer’s limit of $100,000 only becomes relevant if the loss exceeds $80,000, which is not the case here.

Therefore, the primary insurer pays100% of the $60,000 loss.

Correct answer:D.

When two insurers cover the same property but the policies arenot subject to contribution, this means the insurance contracts are written so that each insurer is liable as if no other insurance exists. In effect, the insured may claim the full loss amount from either insurer, regardless of the proportional limits written on each policy.

This distinguishes the situation from typical concurrent insurance, where losses are shared proportionally. Because contribution doesnotapply here, the insured has full freedom to choose which insurer will pay the claim, up to the policy limit.

In this scenario:

The loss is $450,000.

Insurer A’s limit is $800,000, enough to pay the full claim.

Insurer B’s limit is $200,000 — insufficient to cover the entire loss.

Since contribution does not apply, the insured can claim the entire $450,000 from Insurer A without involving Insurer B. Insurer A cannot require the insured to claim part of the loss from Insurer B, nor can the insured demand that B pay part unless they choose to claim from B.

Option B is incorrect because proportional sharing only applies when contribution is explicitly activated.

Option C is incorrect because Insurer B does not owe anything unless the insured submits a claim to them.

Option D is incorrect because subrogation applies after paying a claim—B cannot pay and then pursue A, since A is not legally responsible for B’s voluntary payment.

Thus, the only correct choice is A.

When more than one insurer covers the same property under policies with identical terms, the loss is often shared according to the proportion of insurance each company provides. This is commonly referred to as contribution “pro rata by limits.”

First, determine the total amount of insurance:

Insurer X: $400,000

Insurer Y: $100,000

Total insurance: $500,000

Next, determine each insurer’s percentage of the total:

Insurer X: 400,000 ÷ 500,000 = 80%

Insurer Y: 100,000 ÷ 500,000 = 20%

The total loss is $100,000, so each insurer pays its proportion of the loss:

Insurer X: 80% × $100,000 = $80,000

Insurer Y: 20% × $100,000 = $20,000

There is no deductible to adjust these amounts. Thus, Insurer X pays $80,000 and Insurer Y pays $20,000, making Option C correct.

Subrogationallows an insurer that has indemnified an insured to pursue recovery from the partylegally responsiblefor the loss. It prevents the insured from collecting twice and shifts the financial burden back to the negligent third party. Subrogation is a fundamental principle tied to indemnity.

Option A describes insurer action in fraud cases—not subrogation.

Option B is incorrect; deductibles are always retained by the insured, not reimbursed later.

Option C describes a release or waiver, not subrogation.

Thus, the correct definition isD.

[Insurance as a Contract – Utmost Good Faith / Material Facts]

In their property insurance application, a Quebec client stated there wasnohome business. The underwriter binds the policy without knowing the client runs a daycare in a detached garage. If a loss occurs, will there be consequences?

A. Yes; any claims will be subject to an increased deductible depending on the size of the loss

B. No; as long as the homeowner has at least three years’ experience in the business

C. Yes; if the concealment is proven it could result in the contract being nullified

D. No; in-home businesses with a low to medium hazard grade do not affect eligibility

Answer: C

Insurance contracts rely on the principle ofutmost good faith, requiring applicants to disclose allmaterial facts—facts that would influence an underwriter’s decision to accept, decline, or rate a risk. Operating a home daycare is unquestionably amaterial change in exposure, as it increases traffic, liability hazards, and occupancy risk. Even though the daycare is conducted in a detached garage, it still forms part of the premises insured.

If the clientmisrepresentsorfails to disclosethis information, and the insurer can prove concealment, the insurer mayvoid the policy ab initio (from the beginning)or deny the claim. This applies in Quebec as well, whose Civil Code also requires truthful disclosure of material risks.

Options A and B describe conditions that do not exist in Canadian property insurance.

Option D is incorrect because even low-hazard home businesses must be disclosed.

Thus,Cis correct.

A cover holder is a business entity authorized by an insurer—most often within the Lloyd’s structure—to bind coverage, issue policies, collect premiums, and sometimes handle claims for specific lines of business. This authority is granted through a binding authority agreement, which outlines the scope of operations, underwriting limits, and compliance requirements. Cover holders extend the market reach of insurers while maintaining oversight through strict reporting and audit mechanisms.

A reinsurer assumes risk from insurers but does not issue retail policies or bind coverage for individual clients. A factory mutual is a specialized mutual insurer focusing on highly protected risks, not delegated binding authority. A syndicate mutual is not a recognized category in Canadian P&C operations. Since only a cover holder has formal delegated binding authority from an insurer, the correct answer is B.

Insurers in Canada are heavily regulated in the way they invest their capital because they must remain financially strong to pay future claims. Government regulations—federal for federally regulated insurers and provincial for provincially regulated insurers—set out specific investment restrictions, including prohibiting certain high-risk or illiquid investments. These rules protect policyholders by ensuring insurers maintain solvency and liquidity.

Insurers must invest prudently in order to meet long-term obligations, and therefore regulators specify the classes of investments deemed too risky or unsuitable. This includes limits on speculative investments or holdings that could jeopardize stability.

Option A is incorrect because insurers arenotrequired to invest in non-liquid assets; in fact, liquidity is important.

Option B is incorrect; although some foreign investments may be allowed, the statement is not a broad principle of regulation.

Option C is incorrect because insurers face significant restrictions, not complete freedom.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

An oral binder is a legally recognized temporary contract that provides immediate insurance coverage before a written policy is issued. While oral binders are valid in all Canadian provinces, their reliability depends entirely on whether the intermediary actually has binding authority from the insurer. If the broker or agent who gives the oral binder doesnothave the authority to commit the insurer, then the binder may not be valid, and coverage may not exist. This makes lack of authority the primary risk associated with oral binders.

Option A is incorrect—oral binders are legal across Canada.

Option B is incorrect—a binder cannot override policy warranties; it simply provides temporary coverage.

Option C is unrelated; privacy documentation is not what makes a binder valid or invalid.

Thus, the key problem is that the intermediary may not have binding authority, making D the correct answer.

A contract becomes voidable when one party is induced to enter it through fraudulent misrepresentation. Fraudulent misrepresentation occurs when a party knowingly makes a false statement, intending to mislead the other party, and the misled party relies on that statement when entering the contract. In this scenario, the seller knew the house had termites but intentionally misrepresented the truth when questioned by Karl. This is a deliberate falsehood, fulfilling all elements of fraud: false representation, knowledge of falsity, intent to induce reliance, actual reliance, and resulting detriment.

Undue influence involves pressure or dominance, which is not present. A mistake about assumptions only applies when both parties are mistaken in good faith about a fundamental fact—here the seller acted deliberately. Innocent misrepresentation involves an unintentional error, but the scenario explicitly describes intentional deception. Thus, the correct legal classification is fraudulent misrepresentation.